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  • Question 1 - A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department after...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department after experiencing painless leakage of fluid from her vagina. She reports an initial gush two hours ago, followed by a steady drip. During examination with a sterile speculum, the fluid is confirmed as amniotic fluid. The woman also discloses a severe allergy to penicillin. What is the optimal approach to minimize the risk of infection?

      Your Answer: 10 days erythromycin

      Explanation:

      All women with PPROM should receive a 10-day course of erythromycin. This is the recommended treatment for this condition. Piperacillin and tazobactam (tazocin) is not appropriate due to the patient’s penicillin allergy. Nitrofurantoin is used for urinary tract infections, while vancomycin is typically used for anaerobic GI infections.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Despite progressing well, she has been experiencing persistent nausea and vomiting throughout her pregnancy. In her previous pregnancy, she tried taking metformin but it worsened her symptoms and caused frequent loose stools. As a result, she refuses to take metformin again. She has made changes to her diet and lifestyle for the past two weeks, but her blood results show little improvement. Her fasting plasma glucose levels are 6.8 mmol/L, which is still above the normal range of <5.3mmol/L. What should be the next step in managing her gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced as the next step. This is in accordance with current NICE guidelines, which recommend that pregnant women with any form of diabetes aim for plasma glucose levels below specific target values. Commencing anti-emetic medications or metformin would not be the most appropriate options in this scenario, as the former would not address the underlying issue of gestational diabetes and the latter is not acceptable to the patient. Additionally, offering a 2 week trial of diet and exercise changes would not be appropriate at this stage, as medication is now required. However, this may be an option for patients with a fasting plasma glucose of between 6.0 and 6.9 mmol/L without complications, who can be offered a trial of diet and exercise for 2 weeks before medication is considered if blood glucose targets are not met.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting. She reports this is mostly in the morning but has affected her a lot, as she is struggling to attend work. She can manage oral fluids, but she struggles mostly with eating. She has tried avoiding certain foods and has followed some conservative advice she found on the National Health Service (NHS) website, including ginger, and they have not helped. Her examination is unremarkable. Her documented pre-pregnancy weight is 60 kg, and today she weighs 65 kg. The patient is keen to try some medication.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Management of Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy: Medications and Considerations

      Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are common and can range from mild to severe. Conservative measures such as dietary changes and ginger can be effective for mild symptoms, but oral anti-emetics are recommended for more severe cases. First-line medications include promethazine, cyclizine, and phenothiazines. If these fail, second-line medications such as ondansetron and metoclopramide may be prescribed. Severe cases may require hospital admission, parenteral anti-emetics, and fluid resuscitation. Thiamine is given to all women admitted with severe vomiting. Steroid treatments such as hydrocortisone should be reserved for specialist use. It is important to monitor for side-effects and consider referral to secondary care if necessary.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation. During the examination, her symphysis-fundal height measures 23 cm. What is the most crucial investigation to confirm these findings?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height measurement in centimetres should correspond to the foetal gestational age in weeks with an accuracy of 1 or 2 cm from 20 weeks gestation. Hence, it can be deduced that the woman is possibly experiencing fetal growth restriction. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct an ultrasound to verify if the foetus is indeed small for gestational age.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Her urine test reveals +++ protein. What is the best course of action to manage her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous labetalol with target blood pressure < 135/85 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman with essential hypertension, who is taking once-daily ramipril, attends her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with essential hypertension, who is taking once-daily ramipril, attends her eight-week antenatal appointment. She has a history of well-controlled asthma and depression, but is not currently on any antidepressants. There are no other significant medical issues. Her blood pressure reading in the clinic today is 145/89 mmHg. What is the appropriate management of her hypertension during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and start labetalol

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for pre-existing hypertension in pregnancy

      Explanation: Pre-existing hypertension in pregnancy requires careful management to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. When treating hypertension in pregnancy, it is important to consider the potential adverse effects of medication on fetal development.

      One option is to discontinue antihypertensive treatment as blood pressure drops in the first trimester. However, this is not recommended as high blood pressure in pregnancy can have significant implications.

      Continuing ramipril at the current dose or increasing the dose is not recommended as ACE inhibitors have been associated with fetal malformations. NICE guidelines suggest stopping ACE inhibitors and ARBs as soon as the patient knows she is pregnant or at the first opportunity such as the booking visit.

      The first-line treatment for hypertension in pregnancy is labetalol, but it should be avoided in patients with asthma. Second-line medications include nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, and methyldopa. Methyldopa should be avoided in patients with a history of depression. Therefore, the safest choice in this scenario is nifedipine. It is important to prescribe nifedipine by brand name and continue with the same brand throughout the course of treatment, provided there are no side-effects.

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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and brown vaginal discharge....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and brown vaginal discharge. Four weeks ago, she was diagnosed with an incomplete miscarriage at eight weeks’ gestation, which was medically managed with misoprostol. She reports passing big clots the day after and lightly bleeding since. An ultrasound scan reports a ‘heterogeneous appearance of the endometrial cavity suspicious of retained products of conception’. Her heart rate is 100 bpm, blood pressure 100/80 mmHg and temperature 38.0 °C. Abdominal examination reveals a tender abdomen, with cervical excitation on vaginal examination.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception

      Explanation:

      Options for Management of Miscarriage: Surgical Evacuation, Misoprostol, Expectant Management, and Mifepristone

      Miscarriage is a common complication of pregnancy, affecting up to 20% of all pregnancies. When a miscarriage occurs, there are several options for management, including surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone.

      Surgical evacuation of products of conception involves a general anaesthetic, dilation of the cervix, and removal of the products by curettage. Risks associated with this procedure include bleeding, infection, venous thromboembolism, retained products of conception, intrauterine adhesions, uterine perforation, and cervical damage.

      Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that promotes uterine contraction, cervical ripening, and dilation. It can be used for medical management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage or for induction of labor. However, if medical management fails, as in the case of the patient in this scenario, misoprostol is not appropriate.

      Expectant management is the first-line management of women with a confirmed missed or incomplete miscarriage. However, if expectant management is unacceptable to the patient or in the presence of other factors, such as a previous pregnancy complication, medical or surgical management should be offered.

      Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone that disrupts and degenerates the decidualized endometrium, causes ripening and dilation of the cervix, and increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. When used in combination with misoprostol, it is the recommended regimen for medical termination of pregnancy.

      In conclusion, the management of miscarriage depends on several factors, including the patient’s preference, medical history, and clinical presentation. The options for management include surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with the patient to make an informed decision.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 14 weeks gestation presents with a three-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 14 weeks gestation presents with a three-week history of severe nausea and vomiting. During examination, her pulse is 110 beats/min and blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg. The patient is also experiencing ataxia and diplopia. Urinalysis shows an increased specific gravity and 3+ ketones. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum is made, and the patient responds well to fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline. What other treatment options should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric tube feeding

      Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamins B and C (Pabrinex)

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a pregnancy complication that can lead to severe dehydration, metabolic imbalances, and deficiencies in essential vitamins and minerals. If left untreated, it can also cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, as evidenced by the patient’s diplopia and ataxia. To address this, it is recommended to supplement with thiamine (Vitamin B1) and a complex of vitamins B and C, such as Pabrinex.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old overweight gravida 3 para 2 presents with a tender and swollen...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old overweight gravida 3 para 2 presents with a tender and swollen left leg at 32 weeks of gestation. The clinician initiates appropriate treatment and decides to monitor it with a specific blood test. What is the name of this blood test?

      Your Answer: Anti-Xa activity

      Explanation:

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 10 - Sarah, a 29-year-old pregnant woman (gravidity 1, parity 0) currently 33+0, visits her...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 29-year-old pregnant woman (gravidity 1, parity 0) currently 33+0, visits her obstetrician with a new rash. Sarah attended her 6-year-old nephew's birthday party 2 weeks ago. Today, she woke up feeling unwell with malaise and a loss of appetite. She also noticed a new itchy rash on her back and abdomen. Upon calling her sister, she found out that one of her nephew's friends at the party was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. Sarah has never had chickenpox before. During the examination, Sarah has red papules on her back and abdomen. She is not running a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman who is at least 20 weeks pregnant develops chickenpox, she should receive oral acyclovir treatment if she presents within 24 hours of the rash. Melissa, who is 33 weeks pregnant and has experienced prodromal symptoms, can be treated with oral acyclovir as she presented within the appropriate time frame. IV acyclovir is not typically necessary for pregnant women who have been in contact with chickenpox. To alleviate itchiness, it is reasonable to suggest using calamine lotion and antihistamines, but since Melissa is currently pregnant, she should also begin taking antiviral medications. Pain is not a significant symptom of chickenpox, and Melissa has not reported any pain, so recommending paracetamol is not the most effective course of action.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant with twins presents with vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant with twins presents with vomiting. She cannot keep anything down, is dizzy and tired, and is urinating less frequently.

      Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome. She smokes 6 cigarettes a day. The foetus was conceived via in-vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      On examination, it is found that she has lost 3.2kg, with a pre-pregnancy weight of 64.3kg. Her blood results show the following:

      Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      pH 7.46 (7.35-7.45)

      What factors in this patient's history have increased the risk of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, can lead to pre-pregnancy weight loss and electrolyte imbalance. Women with multiple pregnancies, such as the patient in this case, are at a higher risk due to elevated levels of the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). Hyperthyroidism and molar pregnancy are also risk factors, while hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome are not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. In-vitro fertilisation (IVF) indirectly increases the risk due to the higher likelihood of multiple pregnancy.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a screening test to detect any chromosomal abnormalities. She is in her 16th week of pregnancy and wants the most precise screening test available. She is worried about Edward's syndrome due to her family's medical history.
      What outcome from the screening test would suggest a high probability of Edward's syndrome?

      Your Answer: ↓ hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

      Correct Answer: ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A

      Explanation:

      The correct result for the quadruple test screening for Edward’s syndrome is ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A. This test is offered to pregnant women between 15-20 weeks gestation and measures alpha fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A levels. A ‘high chance’ result would require further screening or diagnostic tests to determine if the baby is affected by Edward’s syndrome. The incorrect answers include a result indicating a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↑ hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency), neural tube defects (↑AFP ↔ oestriol ↔ hCG ↔ inhibin A), and a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↑ hCG ↑ inhibin A). It is important to note that the combined test for Down’s syndrome should not be given to women outside of the appropriate gestation bracket.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to fetal distress and hypoxia detected on cardiotocography. She is currently at 31 weeks gestation.
      After delivery, the baby is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) and given oxygen to aid breathing difficulties.
      Several weeks later, during an ophthalmological examination, the baby is found to have bilateral absent red reflex and retinal neovascularisation.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy of prematurity

      Explanation:

      Risks Associated with Prematurity

      Prematurity is a condition that poses several risks to the health of newborns. The risk of mortality increases with decreasing gestational age. Premature babies are at risk of developing respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular haemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis, chronic lung disease, hypothermia, feeding problems, infection, jaundice, and retinopathy of prematurity. Retinopathy of prematurity is a significant cause of visual impairment in babies born before 32 weeks of gestation. The cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed that over oxygenation during ventilation can lead to the proliferation of retinal blood vessels, resulting in neovascularization. Screening for retinopathy of prematurity is done in at-risk groups. Premature babies are also at risk of hearing problems.

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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate admission to hospital

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.

      Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.

      Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.

      An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.

      Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.

      Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.

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  • Question 16 - A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation and weighed 4.5kg at birth. During the examination, the doctor observes adduction and internal rotation of the right arm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb's palsy

      Explanation:

      If a baby has a birth weight greater than 4kg, regardless of their gestational age, they are diagnosed with foetal macrosomia. This condition can cause dystocia, which may result in injuries to both the mother and baby. Dystocia may also require an operative vaginal delivery or Caesarean-section. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of damage to the upper brachial plexus, resulting in Erb’s palsy. This condition is characterized by the arm being adducted and internally rotated, with the forearm pronated, commonly referred to as the ‘waiter’s tip’. Damage to the lower brachial plexus can cause Klumpke’s palsy, which commonly affects the nerves that innervate the muscles of the hand.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation. The pain started in early morning and has an intensity of 9/10. There is frequent, intermittent uterine contraction, but no vaginal bleeding. Vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70 and heart rate of 90 bpm. Respiratory rate and body temperature are within normal limits. Investigations revealed a diminished platelet count. D-dimer is elevated. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are increased. Schistocytes are noted in the peripheral blood smear.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic thrombophlebitis

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This pregnant woman is experiencing painful uterine contractions and has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is characterized by thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, elevated D-dimer, and the presence of schistocytes in a peripheral blood smear. Although she is not experiencing vaginal bleeding, the most likely cause of her DIC is placental abruption, which can occur without visible bleeding. Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, contractions, vaginal bleeding, and decreased fetal movement. If there is any fetal or maternal compromise, the fetus needs to be delivered by Caesarean section as soon as possible to prevent fetal or maternal demise. DIC can present with bleeding from multiple sites, extensive bruising, low blood pressure, reduced capillary refill time, or sudden onset of high temperature, general malaise, and purpura. Management includes removing the precipitant (e.g., retained placenta) and blood products such as fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate. Other potential causes of DIC, such as lower limb deep venous thrombosis, pelvic thrombophlebitis, urinary tract infection, and sepsis, are less likely in this pregnant woman in the third trimester.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - An obstetrician is getting ready to perform an emergency lower segmental caesarian section...

    Correct

    • An obstetrician is getting ready to perform an emergency lower segmental caesarian section for a 26-year-old woman who is experiencing complications of pre-eclampsia. Once the incision is made through the skin and superficial and deep fascia, what layers will the obstetrician need to traverse/cut through to access the fetus?

      Your Answer: Anterior rectus sheath - rectus abdominis muscle - transversalis fascia - extraperitoneal connective tissue - peritoneum - uterus

      Explanation:

      In obstetric operating theatres or surgical vivas, a frequently asked question pertains to the structures that lie between the skin and the fetus during a lower segment Caesarian section. A confident and clear response indicates a sound understanding of local anatomy and the necessary incisions to reach the fetus. The layers between the skin and the fetus include the superficial fascia, deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle (which is not cut but rather pushed laterally after incising the linea alba), transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue, peritoneum, and uterus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady comes in who is pregnant with her first child. She feels unwell, has upper abdominal pain near her epigastrium, and thinks that her ankle swelling has been much worse over the last few days. You assess her and your findings are as follows:
      Symphysis–fundal height (SFH): 39 cm
      Presentation: breech
      Lie: longitudinal
      Blood pressure (BP): 152/93
      Fetal movements: not palpable
      Which of these investigations is most likely to lead you to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Doppler auscultation of the fetal heartbeat

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to various complications and is a leading cause of maternal death. Risk factors include nulliparity, previous history of pre-eclampsia, family history, and certain medical conditions. Diagnosis is made by testing for proteinuria and monitoring blood pressure. Treatment involves close monitoring, medication, and delivery of the baby. Complications can include HELLP syndrome and eclampsia. Testing for liver function and performing a CTG can aid in management, but will not lead to the diagnosis. Early identification and management are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old para 1+0 comes to the clinic at 36 weeks complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old para 1+0 comes to the clinic at 36 weeks complaining of painless vaginal bleeding. She mentions having occasional spotting for the past 4 weeks, but it has become more frequent and heavier. Her blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, and her heart rate is 85 bpm. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the fetal head is not engaged and high. What further examination should you conduct to confirm your initial suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The results are typical of placenta praevia, according to the findings.
      The RCOG suggests transvaginal ultrasound as it enhances the precision of placental positioning and is deemed to be safe.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver her first child at 9 months’ gestation. What type of abdominal surgical incision is the obstetrician likely to use for the procedure?

      Your Answer: Transverse incision just below the umbilicus

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      When it comes to surgical procedures, there are various types of incisions that can be made depending on the specific operation being performed. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: This is the most common incision site for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline and is also known as the bikini (Pfannenstiel) incision.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This type of incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree. It is commonly used for operations such as an open cholecystectomy.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This type of incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus. It is used to access the vermiform appendix.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used in a surgical procedure depends on the specific operation being performed and the location of the area that needs to be accessed.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for a routine ultrasound scan. During the examination, it is observed that the mother's uterus is smaller than expected for her stage of pregnancy, and the ultrasound scan confirms the presence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). The medical team inquires about any potential risk factors for IUGR that the mother may have.
      What is a known maternal risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)

      Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a baby does not grow properly in the womb. There are various risk factors associated with IUGR, including smoking during pregnancy, which can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.

      There are two types of IUGR: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical growth retardation occurs at the start or during early pregnancy and is characterized by a small head and short length. Asymmetrical growth retardation occurs in advanced pregnancy and is characterized by reduced abdominal growth compared to head circumference, due to selective shunting of blood to the brain.

      It’s important to note that a baby with a birthweight below the tenth centile is considered small for gestational age (SGA), which may be normal or due to IUGR.

      Contrary to popular belief, hypotension (low blood pressure), obesity, and stress are not recognized risk factors for IUGR. However, poorly controlled diabetes is a risk factor for IUGR, while well-controlled diabetes is not.

      Understanding these risk factors can help healthcare providers identify and manage IUGR early on, leading to better outcomes for both mother and baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of pregnancy. The physician reporting the scan calculates an amniotic index >95th centile and diagnoses polyhydramnios.
      What volume of amniotic fluid is considered to be consistent with polyhydramnios?

      Your Answer: >3–4 l of amniotic fluid

      Correct Answer: >2–3 l of amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polyhydramnios: Excess Amniotic Fluid in Pregnancy

      Polyhydramnios is a condition in which there is an excess of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. This excess fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is normally swallowed by the fetus. Diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made by ultrasound assessment of the amount of fluid. If the deepest vertical pool is greater than 8 cm or if the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than the 95th percentile for the corresponding gestational age, polyhydramnios is diagnosed.

      Polyhydramnios occurs in approximately 2% of all pregnancies and is associated with maternal diabetes and fetal anomalies resulting in gastrointestinal obstruction, such as esophageal atresia and poor fetal swallowing.

      It is important to note that normal amniotic fluid varies and increases with gestational age, peaking at around 1 liter. An excess of 2 liters or more is considered consistent with polyhydramnios. Understanding this condition can help healthcare providers monitor and manage pregnancies for the best possible outcomes.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular contractions. During a vaginal examination, the midwife confirms that the mother is currently in the first stage of labor. When does this stage of labor typically end?

      Your Answer: Complete engagement of the foetus

      Correct Answer: 10 cm cervical dilation

      Explanation:

      The first stage of labour begins with the onset of true labour and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10cm. During this stage, regular contractions occur and the cervix gradually dilates. It is important to note that although 4 cm and 6cm cervical dilation occur during this stage, it does not end until the cervix is fully effaced at 10cm. The second stage of labour ends with the birth of the foetus, not the first.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old G3P2 woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old G3P2 woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding. She reports no pain or fever and has not received prenatal care for this pregnancy. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1 ºC. A serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin level is 10,000 iu. A pelvic exam reveals a closed cervical os. A bedside ultrasound confirms the presence of an intrauterine gestational sac with cardiac activity. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of miscarriage: A case study

      A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping at 8 weeks gestation. An ultrasound shows a viable pregnancy with fetal cardiac activity and a gestational sac within the uterus. The cervical os is closed. What type of miscarriage is this?

      Threatened miscarriage is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient can be reassured with precautions, as over 75% of pregnancies with threatened miscarriage do not abort. However, there is an increased risk of growth restriction and abnormal placentation in the third trimester.

      Ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out as the ultrasound has established the gestational sac within the uterus, not within the adnexa. Septic miscarriage is also unlikely as the patient does not demonstrate signs of infection, such as fever, and the cervical os is closed.

      A missed miscarriage can be ruled out as fetal cardiac activity was seen on ultrasound. In a complete miscarriage, the uterus would not have a gestational sac.

      In conclusion, differentiating between types of miscarriage is important in determining appropriate management and counseling for patients. In this case, a diagnosis of threatened miscarriage allows for reassurance and monitoring of potential complications later in pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes to you with worries....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes to you with worries. She recently had contact with her friend's child who has been diagnosed with chickenpox. She cannot remember if she has had chickenpox before and is not experiencing any symptoms of infection at the moment.
      Varicella Zoster Antibodies Negative
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Commence oral acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Commence varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks of pregnancy and is not immune, she should be given VZIG to prevent fetal varicella syndrome. This condition can cause serious birth defects such as microcephaly, cataracts, and limb hypoplasia. Chickenpox can also lead to severe illness in the mother, including varicella pneumonia. It is important to test for varicella antibodies if the woman is unsure if she has had chickenpox before. Without PEP, the risk of developing a varicella infection is high for susceptible contacts.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old girl presents with her daughter, who is two weeks old and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with her daughter, who is two weeks old and was diagnosed a few days following birth with an anterior tongue tie. She is still struggling to establish enough feeding due to poor latch and a poor seal, even though she is alternating between breastfeeding and bottle feeding of expressed milk. She has been reviewed by the health visitor twice who is satisfied with her breastfeeding technique. The baby was over the 50th centile at birth and now has dropped to the 25th centile.
      Given the above, what is the next most appropriate step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Refer for frenotomy under general anaesthesia

      Correct Answer: Refer for frenotomy under no anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Tongue Tie in Infants: Referral for Frenotomy under No Anaesthesia

      Tongue tie is a congenital condition that affects a baby’s ability to move their tongue due to a thickened frenulum. This can cause problems with breastfeeding and bottle feeding, leading to poor weight gain and irritability. In severe cases, a referral for frenotomy is necessary. In infants under three months of age, the procedure can be performed without anaesthesia, though local anaesthesia may be used. Conservative management and support with breastfeeding should be attempted first, but if unsuccessful, a frenotomy should be performed as early as possible to give the baby and mother the best chance at successful feeding. Frenotomy under general anaesthesia is only necessary for infants over three months of age. Converting to bottle feeding is not a solution in severe cases of tongue tie.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - As a newly graduated doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are attending to...

    Correct

    • As a newly graduated doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are attending to an emergency call for a midwife-led delivery. The delivery has been stalled for some time, and the midwife informs you that it is a case of shoulder dystocia. You determine that performing McRobert's manoeuvre is necessary.

      What is the appropriate position for the woman to be in to carry out this manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Supine with both hips fully flexed and abducted

      Explanation:

      The McRobert’s manoeuvre is an efficient and uncomplicated method to address shoulder dystocia. By enhancing the flexibility of the sacroiliac joints, it facilitates pelvic rotation and the subsequent release of the fetal shoulder. It is crucial to immediately seek assistance upon identifying shoulder dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with sporadic contractions. She had noticed a mucous plug in her underwear earlier in the day. Upon examination, she appears to be breathing heavily and experiencing some discomfort. The cardiotocography is normal and progressing smoothly. During a vaginal examination, her cervix is estimated to be dilated at 2 cm. What phase of labour is she currently in?

      Your Answer: Latent 1st stage

      Explanation:

      The correct stage of labour for a woman with a cervix that is just beginning to ripen and dilate is the latent phase of the 1st stage. This stage is characterized by a cervix dilation of 0-3 cm. The active phase of the 1st stage, which is characterized by a cervix dilation of 3-10 cm and more regular contractions, is not applicable in this scenario. The active 2nd stage is also not a descriptive stage of labour, as it only refers to the general stage that ends with the expulsion of the foetus.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (13/30) 43%
Passmed