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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old girl comes in for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with asthma two years ago by her primary care physician. She is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler, using 2 puffs 3 times a day, and a low-dose beclomethasone inhaler. She also takes oral montelukast. Despite this treatment, she still experiences a nighttime cough and needs to use her blue inhaler most days. Unfortunately, the addition of montelukast has not provided much relief. On examination today, her chest is clear with no wheezing and a near-normal peak flow.

      What is the next step in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer: Stop montelukast and add salmeterol

      Explanation:

      For children between the ages of 5 and 16 with asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), and a leukotriene receptor antagonist, it is recommended to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the treatment plan and discontinue the use of the leukotriene receptor antagonist.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of poor sleep, tiredness, reduced appetite and weight loss. She reports low mood and anxiety worse on waking in the mornings.

      She has a history of self harm and you can see evidence of recent deliberate self harm with several superficial cuts to her forearms. She admits to recent suicidal thoughts but has not acted on these and has no acute suicidal intent. She has no psychotic symptoms.

      Following your assessment you make a diagnosis of moderate depression.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Consider starting fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Continue with watchful waiting as no specific intervention is appropriate at this stage

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Children: A Tiered Approach

      In managing moderate to severe depression in children, the first step is to refer them for assessment to tier 2-3 CAMHS. The three tiers of CAMHS cover practitioners who are not mental health specialists and work in universal services (Tier 1), CAMHS specialists working in community and primary care (Tier 2), and multidisciplinary teams delivering specialist services in community mental health clinics (Tier 3).

      For mild depression, Tier 1 management is sufficient. However, for moderate to severe depression, specific psychological therapy in the form of individual CBT, interpersonal therapy, or shorter-term family therapy is the first-line treatment. If the depression is unresponsive to psychological therapy after four to six sessions, a multidisciplinary review should be conducted, and alternative or additional psychological therapies and medication should be considered.

      In summary, managing depression in children requires a tiered approach that involves referral to the appropriate CAMHS tier and the use of specific psychological therapies. It is essential to monitor the child’s response to treatment and adjust the management plan accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a trip to Spain. She also reports that her hands have delicate skin that tears easily. The patient has a history of hypertrichosis and has previously been referred to a dermatologist. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Understanding Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

      Porphyria cutanea tarda is a type of hepatic porphyria that is commonly inherited due to a defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. However, it can also be caused by liver damage from factors such as alcohol, hepatitis C, or estrogen. The condition is characterized by a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, with blistering and skin fragility on the face and hands being the most common features. Other symptoms include hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.

      To diagnose porphyria cutanea tarda, doctors typically look for elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine, as well as pink fluorescence under a Wood’s lamp. Additionally, serum iron ferritin levels are used to guide therapy.

      Treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda typically involves the use of chloroquine or venesection. Venesection is preferred if the iron ferritin level is above 600 ng/ml. With proper management, individuals with porphyria cutanea tarda can lead normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.

      What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-month-old girl is seen having recently been diagnosed with epilepsy.
    She was started...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old girl is seen having recently been diagnosed with epilepsy.
      She was started on sodium valproate following an admission for recurrent seizures. She has been reviewed in outpatients and the paediatricians have advised she continue on a maintenance dose of 10 mg/kg BD.
      Her current weight is 7 kg. Sodium valproate oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 200 mg/5 ml.
      What is the correct dosage of sodium valproate in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1.25 ml BD

      Correct Answer: 7.5 ml BD

      Explanation:

      BNF Prescribing in Children

      When prescribing medication for children, it is important to consider their weight and calculate the appropriate dosage based on their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a child weighs 8 kg and the recommended dose is 12.5 mg/kg BD, the correct dosage would be 100 mg BD. It is also important to consider the concentration of the medication, such as a sodium valproate solution that contains 200 mg in 5 ml. By calculating the appropriate dosage, healthcare professionals can ensure that children receive safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      124.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat, fever and rash. On examination he has a punctate rash, strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. You diagnose him with scarlet fever and decide to start phenoxymethylpenicillin. Do you need to notify the local health protection team (HPT)?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever is not a notifiable disease

      Correct Answer: Local HPT should be informed if scarlet fever is suspected

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of scarlet fever, it is important to inform the local HPT without waiting for laboratory confirmation, as detecting outbreaks quickly is a priority for Public Health England. Clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is sufficient for reporting purposes since 1968.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements....

    Incorrect

    • A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements. What factors increase the likelihood of a couple having a baby with a neural tube defect (NTD)?

      Your Answer: Maternal rubella

      Correct Answer: Maternal coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      If a couple has a history of neural tube defects (NTDs), either partner has a NTD, or they have a family history of NTDs, they are at high risk of conceiving a child with this condition. Additionally, if the woman has coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia trait, or is taking antiepileptic drugs, the risk is also increased. However, being obese (with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) is not a risk factor for NTDs and may actually be protective. On the other hand, advancing maternal age is a known risk factor for Down’s syndrome, while maternal rubella can lead to multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation in the child.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers' Care report, to provide details about the demise of a postpartum patient who was under the care of the practice. What type of procedure does the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers Care report exemplify?

      Your Answer: Inquest

      Correct Answer: Confidential enquiry

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes public health education, which involves promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to have an understanding of the surveillance systems they are involved in. The Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report is an example of a Confidential Enquiry, which replaces the previous Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH), also known as Why Mothers Die. The purpose of a Confidential Enquiry is to investigate morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The details of each individual case are kept confidential and not published. GPs are often involved in providing information about maternal deaths to the team responsible for producing the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report. Expert reviewers gather and assess information from various healthcare professionals involved in the patient’s care, including GPs.

      Understanding Confidential Enquiries

      A confidential enquiry is a process of investigating morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The purpose of this investigation is to ensure that healthcare providers are delivering the best possible care to their patients. The confidentiality of each case is maintained, and no details are published to protect the privacy of the individuals involved.

      During a confidential enquiry, healthcare providers review cases of morbidity and mortality to identify any shortcomings in their practice. This process helps to identify areas where improvements can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is essential to encourage healthcare providers to participate in the process without fear of retribution or legal action.

      In conclusion, confidential enquiries are an essential tool for improving healthcare practices. By identifying areas of improvement, healthcare providers can work to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is critical to ensure that healthcare providers feel comfortable participating in the process and that the privacy of the individuals involved is protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020 and subsequently tested positive for the virus. Her dyspnea gradually worsened, and she was hospitalized ten days into her illness. She received oxygen therapy and was discharged one week later. She has been off work for three months since the onset of her symptoms and has interacted with several colleagues during this time. She now comes to you nine months after the onset of her symptoms, complaining of persistent fatigue. On physical examination, everything appears normal. Her chest X-ray, lung function tests, electrocardiogram, full blood count, and thyroid function tests are all normal, and she has been discharged from the care of respiratory physicians. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Consider that she could be suffering with psychological effects following her illness

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Uncertainty in Long Covid Management

      Dealing with uncertainty can be challenging for both patients and clinicians, especially in a rapidly evolving field like long covid management. It is unlikely that candidates will be tested on precise details that may change between question setting and the exam. Instead, questions may focus on the management of conditions that are poorly understood or the more reliable do not dos.

      One important point to note is that there is no reliable evidence to support prescribing steroids or antivirals for suspected long covid, especially by a generalist. At least 10% of people with acute covid-19 may experience symptoms that persist for months, and recovery timescales can vary. There is no set date by which patients should have settled, and there is no evidence that patients are infectious at this stage of the disease.

      It is also important to consider psychological illness as a potential factor in long covid management. Clinicians should keep an open mind about this when evaluating patients, while also being alert to alternative diagnoses and investigating where appropriate. By staying informed and adaptable, clinicians can better navigate the uncertainties of long covid management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the last couple of years, she has experienced approximately six asthma exacerbations that necessitated oral steroid treatment. Her current regimen consists of beclomethasone 200 mcg 1 puff bd and salbutamol 2 puffs prn. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m^2, is a non-smoker, and has demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta-agonist

      Correct Answer: Add oral montelukast

      Explanation:

      As per the NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, their treatment plan should include the addition of a LTRA instead of a LABA. In this case, since the patient is already taking a short-acting beta-agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, the recommended course of action would be to offer them an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist. This is in contrast to the previous BTS guidance which would have suggested the use of a long-acting beta-agonist in such a scenario.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and signs that strongly indicate Meningococcal meningitis. He has no known allergies.

      What immediate steps should you take?

      Your Answer: Give an injection of parenteral benzylpenicillin first then phone 999 for an ambulance

      Correct Answer: Give an injection of parenteral ampicillin after phoning 999 for an ambulance

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment in Primary Care

      Potentially life-threatening situations are rare in primary care, but prompt action by a vigilant GP can save lives. Both NICE/CKS and the BNF are reference sources for the AKT exam, and they recommend admitting the person to the hospital as an emergency by calling 999. Treatment should not delay transfer to the hospital, and a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible, provided that it doesn’t delay urgent transfer to the hospital.

      Emergency treatment is a crucial topic for the exam, and candidates have performed poorly in the past. It is essential to have benzylpenicillin, a suitable diluent, needles and syringes, and to be familiar with the correct doses for the age range. It is also crucial to ensure that the medicines in the emergency drug bag have not expired and to know who pays for them. More general GP admin and management issues appear to be a weak area for Registrars. If you are unsure about any of the questions posed, ask your trainer who pays for emergency drugs and whether the cost can be claimed back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently...

    Incorrect

    • A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'

      Correct Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'

      Explanation:

      The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      114.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules: Bony Swellings in Osteoarthritis

      Heberden’s nodules are bony swellings that typically develop around the distal interphalangeal joints, particularly in the second and third fingers. These nodules are caused by calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the base of the terminal phalanges in osteoarthritis. This condition is more common in females and usually occurs in middle age. Heberden’s nodules can cause pain and stiffness in the affected joints, and may limit hand function. Proper management of osteoarthritis can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated...

    Incorrect

    • A study found that of 100 people over the age of 60 treated with a certain medication, 80 had improvement in their symptoms, whereas of 100 people over the age of 60 not treated, only 50 had improvement. What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?

      Your Answer: 25

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Number Needed to Treat (NNT) for Vertigo Treatment

      To determine the effectiveness of a vertigo treatment, we can calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). This is done by first calculating the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the Control Event Rate (CER) and the Experimental Event Rate (EER). For example, if 55 out of 100 control patients failed to have a resolution of vertigo, and 30 out of 100 treatment patients failed to improve, the ARR would be 0.55 – 0.30 = 0.25. To find the NNT, we simply take the reciprocal of the ARR, which in this case would be 1/0.25 = 4. This means that for every 4 patients treated with the vertigo treatment, one patient will have a resolution of their vertigo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      150.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.

      Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.3
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
      During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.

      What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?

      Your Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      116.5
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  • Question 21 - A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for the first month of life before being switched to formula. Over the past eight weeks, he has been experiencing various issues such as vomiting, regurgitation, eczema, and diarrhea. Despite these problems, he has maintained his weight at the 50th percentile. Physical examination reveals no significant findings except for some dry skin on his chest. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      If symptoms appear after formula is introduced, it strongly indicates the presence of cow’s milk protein intolerance.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?

      Your Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area

      Explanation:

      When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.

      Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.8
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma. She is otherwise well and has no significant previous medical history. During the consultation, it transpires that her sister died of cystic fibrosis and she is worried about having a child affected with the same disease. Her chest X-ray is normal. Her partner has no family history of cystic fibrosis.
      Assuming a population carrier frequency of 1 in 25, what is the chance of this patient having an affected child?

      Your Answer: 1 in 50

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. The probability of inheriting this condition can be calculated based on the carrier status of the parents. Here are some examples of how to calculate the chance of having an affected child with cystic fibrosis:

      1. 1 in 150: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the overall chance of having an affected child is 1 in 150.

      2. 1 in 10: If one parent has an affected sibling but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), and the other parent has an unknown carrier status, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 10.

      3. 1 in 50: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 50.

      4. 1 in 100: If both parents are carriers (2 in 3 chance for one and 1 in 25 chance for the other), the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 100.

      5. 1 in 200: The chance of being a carrier is not always 1 in 2, as it depends on the individual’s family history. If one parent has an affected relative but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), the chance of having an affected child with a partner who has a 1 in 25 chance of being a carrier is 1 in 200.

      Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.

      What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist

      Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.

      In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      38.5
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the Gynaecology department after receiving one dose of methotrexate for the medical management of an ectopic pregnancy. She presents you with a discharge letter indicating that her ßHCG level is now undetectable. She is interested in conceiving again and wants to know when it is safe to do so.

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Systemic Methotrexate for Tubal Ectopic Pregnancy

      According to RCOG Green top guideline No. 21, systemic methotrexate is a viable option for treating tubal ectopic pregnancy. This drug has been found to be equally successful as laparoscopic surgery in certain cases. However, it is crucial to first rule out an intrauterine pregnancy before administering methotrexate.

      One advantage of using methotrexate is that it doesn’t affect ovarian reserve. However, women undergoing treatment should avoid alcohol and folate-containing vitamins. Additionally, it is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for at least three months after receiving methotrexate due to its teratogenic potential. This is because the drug may remain present in some organs for an extended period of time, which could potentially harm fetal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old man known to have diffuse ulcerative colitis for which he takes...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man known to have diffuse ulcerative colitis for which he takes mesalazine 1.5g daily has an exacerbation. He is passing up to 10 loose stools per day with blood. He is feeling unwell, appears mildly dehydrated and anaemic.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management option.

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Exacerbations

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) can cause severe exacerbations that require hospitalization for fluid and electrolyte replacement, transfusion, and possibly intravenous corticosteroids. However, for less severe exacerbations of diffuse disease, there are other treatment options available.

      One option is to increase the dose of mesalazine, which is an anti-inflammatory medication commonly used to treat IBD. Another option is to take oral prednisolone, which is a steroid medication that can help reduce inflammation in the gut.

      For those with proctitis or distal disease, prednisolone enemas may be used as a treatment option. These enemas are administered directly into the rectum and can help reduce inflammation in the lower part of the colon.

      Overall, the treatment options for IBD exacerbations depend on the severity and location of the disease. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.3
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports frequent urine leakage and a strong urge to urinate that she cannot control. She denies experiencing dysuria or hematuria and has no gastrointestinal symptoms. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen, and urinalysis is normal. The patient drinks seven glasses of water per day and avoids caffeinated beverages. She has a BMI of 20.2 and is a non-smoker. If non-pharmacological interventions fail, what is the first-line medication for her condition?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Urinary Urge Incontinence

      Urinary urge incontinence is a common condition that can be treated with supervised bladder training for at least six weeks. This training can be provided by a continence nurse, physiotherapist, or urology clinic. If symptoms persist, an Antimuscarinic drug can be prescribed, with the lowest effective dose used and titrated upwards if necessary. It may take up to four weeks for the drug to take effect, and side effects such as dry mouth and constipation may occur. First-line drugs include oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin.

      It is important to note that diuretics such as furosemide can potentially worsen symptoms of urinary urge incontinence. Amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition, as it is primarily used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis. Duloxetine may be used as a second-line treatment for stress incontinence, but it is not included in NICE guidelines for urinary urge incontinence. Desmopressin is typically used for other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and bleeding disorders.

      In summary, supervised bladder training and Antimuscarinic drugs are effective treatment options for urinary urge incontinence. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      49.2
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  • Question 29 - As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man...

    Correct

    • As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man who has undergone routine blood tests to monitor his Antihypertensive medication.

      The blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      eGFR 85 ml/min/1.73m2

      Upon calling the patient, he reports no symptoms and confirms that he is taking his regular lisinopril and amlodipine.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital

      Explanation:

      Patients who have acute severe hyponatraemia, which is defined as having a serum sodium concentration of less than 125 mmol/L, must be urgently hospitalized, as per the current NICE CKS guidelines. Therefore, referring the patient to a routine endocrinology clinic is not appropriate, as immediate action is necessary. Although diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause low sodium, it would be inappropriate to wait for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium levels. Similarly, ramipril can also cause low sodium, but waiting for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium level would be inappropriate, and urgent measures must be taken. Waiting for 2 weeks for repeat blood tests is not appropriate, and the patient should be admitted to the hospital due to the low level of serum sodium.

      Understanding Hyponatraemia: Causes and Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a condition that can be caused by either an excess of water or a depletion of sodium in the body. However, it is important to note that there are also cases of pseudohyponatraemia, which can be caused by factors such as hyperlipidaemia or taking blood from a drip arm. To diagnose hyponatraemia, doctors often look at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity.

      If the urinary sodium level is above 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to renal loss or the use of diuretics such as thiazides or loop diuretics. Other possible causes include Addison’s disease or the diuretic stage of renal failure. On the other hand, if the patient is euvolaemic, it may be due to conditions such as SIADH (urine osmolality > 500 mmol/kg) or hypothyroidism.

      If the urinary sodium level is below 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to extra-renal loss caused by conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating, burns, or adenoma of rectum. Alternatively, it may be due to water excess, which can cause the patient to be hypervolaemic and oedematous. This can be caused by conditions such as secondary hyperaldosteronism, nephrotic syndrome, IV dextrose, or psychogenic polydipsia.

      In summary, hyponatraemia can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. By looking at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity, doctors can determine the cause of hyponatraemia and provide the necessary interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      28.7
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 480 ms. She takes only takes oral quetiapine regularly. She reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: No follow up is required

      Correct Answer: Repeat ECG

      Explanation:

      Management of QTc Prolongation in a Psychiatric Patient

      It is important to seek advice from psychiatry before making any changes to medications in a psychiatric patient. Abruptly stopping an antipsychotic medication could lead to acute deterioration in the patient’s mental health.

      When managing QTc prolongation, it is important to consider the normal values for QTc, which are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. The degree to which the QTc is increased is relevant to the next step of management. If the QTc is >500 ms or there is abnormal T-wave morphology, it would require discussion with the on-call cardiology team and consideration of stopping the suspected causative drug(s).

      Lithium would not typically be initiated by a general practitioner and would not be indicated in this case. Therefore, it is most appropriate to discuss with psychiatry for their advice. They may recommend lowering the antipsychotic dose and repeating the ECG. Proper management of QTc prolongation in a psychiatric patient requires collaboration between psychiatry and cardiology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      33.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (3/5) 60%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Population Health (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Passmed