00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not...

    Correct

    • What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not experience any symptoms?

      Your Answer: Around 70% of women and 50% of men

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on sodium valproate. What guidance should be given regarding his group 2 license?

      Your Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 10 years without medication

      Explanation:

      Individuals who possess a group 2 license and have epilepsy are only permitted to operate a vehicle after a period of 10 years without experiencing seizures while not taking medication. This is a more stringent requirement compared to group 1 license holders. If a group 2 license holder is diagnosed with epilepsy, it is advised that they refrain from driving, even if their condition is under control with medication. Only after a decade of being seizure-free without medication can they undergo a reassessment to determine their eligibility to drive.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago....

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago. The result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but her cervical cytology was normal.

      She underwent repeat testing after 12 months and again tested positive for hrHPV with normal cytology. Her next screening was scheduled for another 12 months.

      Recently, Samantha underwent her scheduled screening. The results indicate that she is still hrHPV positive and her cytology is normal.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines on cervical cancer screening, if an individual’s second repeat smear at 24 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should be referred for colposcopy. Prior to this, if an individual is positive for hrHPV but receives a negative cytology report, they should have the HPV test repeated at 12 months. If the HPV test is negative at 12 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive and cytology negative at 12 months, they should have a repeat HPV test in a further 12 months. If they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can safely return to routine recall.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South...

    Correct

    • You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?

      Your Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change

      Explanation:

      Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes

      By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.

      While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is currently undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. Upon examination, the doctor observes an ulcerated, erythematous, and sore mouth. The patient mentions that he can still consume solid food. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oral mucositis

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Conditions in Myelosuppressed Patients

      Myelosuppressed patients, particularly those undergoing cancer treatment, are at a high risk of developing oral complications. One of the most common conditions is oral mucositis, which can occur in up to 70% of patients undergoing stem cell transplantation. This painful condition is caused by a combination of factors, including chemotherapy or radiotherapy damage, the oral environment, myelosuppression, and genetic predisposition. Symptoms include burning, erythema, and ulcerations in the mouth, which can impact the patient’s nutritional status and require supportive treatment with oral hygiene, mucosal-coating agents, and analgesia.

      Other oral conditions that may affect myelosuppressed patients include herpes zoster infection, candidiasis, herpes simplex infection, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Candidiasis is the most frequent oral infection in myelosuppressed patients, presenting as white patches on the gums, tongue, and inside the mouth. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is another common viral infection that causes ulcers on the lips. Herpes zoster infection can involve the mouth and skin, while Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a potentially fatal skin reaction caused by drugs, presenting with macules, target lesions, and bullae affecting the skin and mucosal surfaces.

      In conclusion, myelosuppressed patients are at a high risk of developing various oral complications, which can impact their quality of life and require supportive treatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these conditions and provide appropriate management to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC).

      Which of these statements is true about the COC?

      Your Answer: If a pill is missed 10 days into the pill cycle, emergency contraception is needed

      Correct Answer: A 12 month review is acceptable once the patient is established on the pill

      Explanation:

      Starting and Maintaining the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) can be started at any point during the menstrual cycle, as long as the woman is not pregnant. Once established on the COC, it is reasonable to give a 12-month prescription.

      According to the latest guidance from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), additional precautions are no longer required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with the COCP for durations of 3 weeks or less. However, if the antibiotics or illness cause vomiting or diarrhea, the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.

      If seven COC pills have been taken, ovulation is suppressed for a further seven days, and emergency contraception is not required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.

      There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.

      This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
    The school had...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
      The school had spoken to them because despite good educational progress they had noticed that she spends a lot of time on her own and doesn't really make friends with the other children or engage in group activities. She has quite restricted interests both at home and at school. The parents report that she has 'always been like this' and that at home she likes to read and write a lot but other than that doesn't really engage and play with other children.
      During the consultation the child seems to have appropriate language skills and be of normal intelligence but doesn't engage fully with your attempts at conversation and play, and avoids eye contact with you.
      What is the likely underlying problem?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Correct Answer: Asperger's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asperger’s Syndrome

      Asperger’s Syndrome is a type of autism that affects social interaction, behavior patterns, and interests. However, unlike other forms of autism, individuals with Asperger’s have normal or even above-average language and intelligence skills. This condition is characterized by impaired social skills, repetitive behavior, and restricted interests.

      On the other hand, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder is a rare condition that affects less than 5 in 10,000 children. It is characterized by the sudden loss of acquired skills in motor, language, and social development between the ages of 3 and 4. The cause of this disorder is still unknown.

      A mood disorder is not likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms, given their age and general features. Meanwhile, Rett’s Syndrome is an X-linked disorder that primarily affects females. It typically occurs between 6 and 18 months of age and is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills. Other symptoms such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.

      In summary, understanding the differences between Asperger’s Syndrome and other developmental disorders is crucial in providing appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin tablets

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.

      Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.

      Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about exposure to Chickenpox. Her...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about exposure to Chickenpox. Her 4-year-old nephew has the virus and she was in close contact with him yesterday. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her first child and is unsure if she had Chickenpox as a child. The midwife advised her to avoid exposure to the virus. You urgently test her blood for varicella antibody.

      VZV IgG NOT DETECTED

      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Give varicella immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman who is not immune to Chickenpox has been exposed to the virus before 20 weeks of pregnancy, the recommended course of action is to administer VZIG. Ganciclovir is not typically used to treat Chickenpox, but may be used for acute herpetic keratitis or cytomegalovirus. However, it should be avoided during pregnancy unless the benefits outweigh the risks. General advice is not appropriate for pregnant women with symptoms of Chickenpox due to the risk of fetal varicella syndrome. If the pregnant woman had already developed Chickenpox, oral aciclovir may be prescribed within 24 hours of the onset of the rash.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Is there any medication listed on her repeat prescription that could cause interactions and contraindicate the use of this contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Orlistat

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it often causes loose stool or diarrhea unless the patient follows a low-fat diet. It is crucial to assess the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics and contraceptive pills, as it may decrease their effectiveness by increasing gut transit time. If the patient wants to continue taking orlistat, it is advisable to consider alternative contraception methods that are more reliable.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has a history of substance abuse and is starting opioid substitution therapy. He is worried about relapsing and asks several specific questions.
      What is the most probable factor that could raise the risk of overdose during methadone titration at the beginning of this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer: Concurrent use of other drugs

      Explanation:

      When prescribing methadone for opioid abuse, caution must be taken to avoid overdose, especially in the first 2-3 days and within the first two weeks of treatment. Concurrent use of other drugs, such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants, can increase the risk of overdose. Patients with low opioid tolerance, shorter history of drug use, or lower levels of drug use are also at higher risk. To mitigate this risk, starting doses of 10-20 mg of methadone should be used, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first 2 weeks. Methadone is excreted slowly during the first few days of treatment, which increases the risk of overdose. Frequent review and monitoring is important during this period. Methadone patients should also be informed of the increasing effect of a dose as steady state is achieved. Co-existing mental health problems may also respond to appropriate methadone dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 h after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
      Select from the list the most likely causative organism of this acute attack of vomiting.

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacterial Food Poisoning: Causes and Symptoms

      Bacterial food poisoning is a common problem that can result from consuming contaminated food or water. Among the different types of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Salmonella are the most common. Each of these bacteria has its own unique characteristics and symptoms.

      Staphylococcus aureus is known to multiply rapidly in foods that are rich in carbohydrates and salt, such as dairy products, ice cream, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable endotoxin that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.

      Bacillus cereus infection is associated with slow-cooked food and reheated rice. The bacterium produces an emetic toxin that leads to vomiting within 1-5 hours. It can be difficult to distinguish from other short-term bacterial foodborne intoxications such as by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Yersinia infection results in diarrhea some 3-10 days after contact and presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The organism is acquired usually by insufficiently cooked pork or contaminated water, meat, or milk.

      Campylobacter infection has an incubation period of 2-5 days and results in flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is the most common bacterium that causes food poisoning in the UK.

      Salmonella infection normally leads to a picture of acute gastroenteritis with fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 12-36 hours after the ingestion of infected food. Infection occurs from a wide variety of infected foods that usually look and smell normal.

      It is important for registered medical practitioners to notify the “proper officer” at their local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of food poisoning. By understanding the causes and symptoms of bacterial food poisoning, individuals can take steps to prevent infection and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having 2-3 headaches per month over the past few months, each lasting for 2-3 days. The headaches are usually pulsating and on one side. She is generally healthy, active, and takes the mini-pill for birth control. She lives with her partner and works as a teacher in a primary school.

      Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing recurrent migraines with classic symptoms such as unilateral and pulsating headache. However, topiramate is not the best option as it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, including both the combined oral contraceptive pill and the progestogen-only pill (UKMEC 3 (disadvantages outweigh advantages)). Instead, alternative options such as triptans and NSAIDs can be used as monotherapy or in combination for acute treatment. Propranolol is also a suitable preventative treatment for women who are of childbearing age or those who are on hormonal contraceptives.

      Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations

      Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.

      Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.

      Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye....

    Correct

    • A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Red reflex test

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance

      Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:

      Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.

      Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.

      Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.

      Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.

      Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe headache every month just before the onset of her period. According to NICE, what is recommended to prevent the development of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice a day) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe pruritus. During examination, he has excoriations on his trunk and limbs. There is some scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies infestation

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Diseases: Differential Diagnosis for Pruritus and Rash

      When a patient presents with pruritus and a rash, it is important for doctors to consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases. One common cause of such symptoms is scabies infestation, which can be identified by a scaly rash on the hands with burrows and scaling in the web spaces. However, the rash in scabies is nonspecific and can be mistaken for eczema, so doctors must maintain a high index of suspicion and consider scabies as a diagnosis until proven otherwise.

      Other skin conditions and diseases that may cause pruritus and rash include diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. Diabetes is associated with several skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum and acanthosis nigricans, but typically doesn’t present with pruritus and rash. Atopic eczema can lead to pruritus and rash, but patients with this condition usually have a long history of eczematous lesions elsewhere on their body. Chronic renal failure may cause pruritus due to uraemia, but rarely results in a skin rash. Iron deficiency anaemia may cause itching and pruritus, but doesn’t typically cause a skin rash.

      In summary, when a patient presents with pruritus and rash, doctors must consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases, including scabies infestation, diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately identify the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.

      Blood tests reveal the following:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)

      What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?

      Your Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building

      Explanation:

      Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer: [13C] urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst. His ESR is 95 mm/hour and he has normocytic normochromic anemia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells and is more common in Afro-Caribbeans. It can cause bone pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia, leading to lethargy and thirst. An elevated ESR and normochromic normocytic anemia are typical features of multiple myeloma.

      Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy (CPA), also known as chondrocalcinosis, primarily affects the knee joint and doesn’t typically cause anemia. Osteoarthritis may cause back pain but doesn’t typically present with systemic symptoms such as lethargy and thirst. Osteoporosis is rare in men at this age and doesn’t cause anemia or elevated ESR. Paget’s disease of bone may cause bone pain, deformity, and fractures, but the patient in this scenario doesn’t have classical features of the disease.

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      67.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of severe obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first line pharmacological treatment for OCD?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      According to the 2005 NICE Guidance on the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder and body dysmorphic disorder, adults with OCD should be prescribed one of the following SSRIs as their first pharmacological treatment: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, or citalopram.

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools...

    Correct

    • A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools has not responded well to loperamide and antispasmodics. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line medication class for this condition?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      The initial medication prescribed for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome typically includes antispasmodics, as well as loperamide for diarrhea or laxatives for constipation. If these treatments prove ineffective, low-dose tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline (5-10 mg at night) may be considered as a secondary option to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort, according to NICE guidelines. Linaclotide may also be an option for those experiencing constipation. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used as a tertiary treatment.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once daily except on methotrexate day

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once weekly at least 24 hours after methotrexate dose

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, methotrexate is typically prescribed once a week and is often accompanied by a co-prescription of folic acid. This is done to minimize the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Folic acid is taken on a day when methotrexate is not being taken. The British National Formulary recommends a weekly dose of 5mg for adults to prevent methotrexate-induced side effects in rheumatic disease. It is important to take the folic acid dose on a different day than the methotrexate dose.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling of her wrists and knuckles. The symptoms improve by mid-day but persist daily. She reports feeling unwell.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, which can affect both hands and is often worse in bed and in the morning, rheumatoid arthritis is typically symmetrical and develops gradually. In addition, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience systemic symptoms such as pyrexia, feeling unwell, weight loss, and muscle aches. Gout, on the other hand, usually presents as an acute monoarthritis in the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the great toe, while osteoarthritis commonly affects the hands and is characterized by bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints. Rheumatic fever, which is caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, is more common in children and presents as a migratory arthritis affecting large joints like the knees, ankles, wrists, and elbows, along with pyrexia and constitutional symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat joint disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing...

    Correct

    • You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing in his left ear. This started suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well with no ear pain, fevers or systemic upset. Examination of ears and cranial nerves were unremarkable.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Sudden Hearing Loss in Adults

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in June 2018 to provide recommendations on managing sudden or rapid onset hearing loss in adults. This type of hearing loss is not explained by external or middle ear causes.

      According to the guidelines, an immediate referral is recommended if the hearing loss developed suddenly within the past 30 days. If the hearing loss developed suddenly but it has been over 30 days or if it worsened rapidly, a two-week wait referral is advised. The guidelines also provide further recommendations if there are additional symptoms or signs such as facial droop.

      It is important to note that NICE defines sudden hearing loss as within 3 days and rapid worsening as 4-90 days. These guidelines aim to improve the management and treatment of sudden hearing loss in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.

      What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?

      Your Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD

      Explanation:

      Spirometry and Management of COPD

      In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      162
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (2/2) 100%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/4) 50%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (3/3) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed