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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease (creatinine 190 μmol/l on admission) is admitted for angiography. He remains in the hospital over the weekend and you are requested to assess him three days after the procedure. The nursing staff has observed a purpuric rash on his feet and suspects that the blood supply to his lower limbs is compromised.
      Blood tests show an ESR of 86, eosinophilia, and a creatinine level of 450 μmol/l.
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cholesterol Embolism and Differential Diagnosis

      Cholesterol embolism is a condition commonly seen in patients with existing arterial disease who have undergone arterial manipulation. Patients may present with a peripheral purpuric rash and dusky lower limbs, and associated laboratory tests include eosinophilia, worsening kidney disease, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and low levels of complement. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment shown to be of benefit.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, contrast nephropathy can occur after a contrast load in patients with renal impairment, but it would not account for the eosinophilia in this case. Acute vasculitis is a systemic illness that presents with a palpable purpura that occurs in crops, along with other associated symptoms such as fever, weight loss, fatigue, and joint pains. Renal artery thrombosis can cause renal impairment due to complete occlusion of the renal artery from thromboemboli, atherosclerosis, or fibromuscular disease, but it would not cause an eosinophilia. Renal vein thrombosis, on the other hand, occurs most commonly in patients with nephrotic syndrome with heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia, and peripheral edema due to a hypercoagulable state.

      In summary, understanding the presentation and associated laboratory tests of cholesterol embolism and considering differential diagnoses can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      86.7
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  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of left arm pain....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of left arm pain. He reports experiencing the pain while lifting weights and during exercise, which causes him to feel weak, dizzy, and nauseated. He has even passed out twice without warning. The patient also reports neck pain and recently had an MRI scan that showed some degenerative changes in his vertebrae. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia and takes atenolol and simvastatin regularly. He is a smoker and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. He works as a builder and is married with two adult children.

      During the examination, the patient's blood pressure was 150/78 mmHg in the right arm and 120/67 mmHg in the left arm. Bilateral carotid bruits were present, but heart sounds were normal, and the chest x-ray was normal. Neurological examination showed normal tone, depressed reflexes at the biceps and brachioradialis, and a brisk triceps jerk. There was impaired pinprick sensation over the thumb and middle finger in the left hand, but no weakness, atrophy, or fasciculations were observed. The cerebellar system appeared intact.

      Carotid Doppler studies revealed 70% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery and 50% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subclavian Steal Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an obstruction near the origin of the left vertebral artery, leading to the stealing of blood from the right vertebral artery. This results in basilar insufficiency, which manifests as brainstem features such as vertigo, diplopia, dysarthria, and drop attacks. The risk factors for this syndrome include hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes, and connective tissue disorders such as Takayasu’s arteritis.

      Carotid artery disease, Pancoast’s tumor, and thoracic outlet syndrome are some of the differential diagnoses that need to be ruled out. Carotid artery disease does not cause brainstem features or syncope, while Pancoast’s tumor causes thoracic outlet syndrome. Thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and atrophy of the hand and wrist, pain, loss of sensation, and tingling in the medial forearm and little and first fingers. Cervical spondylosis may explain some of the reflex changes and sensory disturbances, but it would not explain the brainstem features.

      In summary, subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that needs to be considered in patients presenting with brainstem features and a reduction in blood pressure in the left arm. Differential diagnosis should include carotid artery disease, Pancoast’s tumor, thoracic outlet syndrome, and cervical spondylosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      191.7
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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large small bowel resection. It was complicated by an anastomotic breakdown which required a further resection and jejunostomy formation. He was referred to a local intestinal failure unit and, after a period of assessment, was discharged home on parenteral nutrition. He gained weight and made good progress, although an intermittently high-output stoma persisted. When reviewed in clinic after a year on home parenteral nutrition, he complained of hair loss, a skin rash, and impairment of taste. Examination revealed a superficial scaling erythematous patchy rash that was most prominent in intertriginous areas and periorally. What is the most probable nutrient deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zinc

      Explanation:

      Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

      Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), and cognitive impairment.

      One specific form of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including skin lesions, diarrhea, and other gastrointestinal issues. Treatment may involve zinc supplementation and dietary changes to ensure adequate zinc intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure is seen in the diabetes clinic. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, bisoprolol, furosemide, and simvastatin. His annual blood work shows normal electrolyte levels, kidney function, and cholesterol levels, but his HbA1c is 7.7%. His blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his anti-diabetic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient does not achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old woman experiences a sudden-onset headache on the left side of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman experiences a sudden-onset headache on the left side of her face and neck while at rest 24 hours ago. The pain is severe, rated at 10/10, and started suddenly. It has not subsided and is throbbing in nature. She also had a brief episode of vision loss in her left eye that lasted for two hours before resolving. Since then, she has noticed that food tastes strange. On examination, she has a small, sluggishly light-responsive left pupil compared to the right and partial left ptosis. The rest of her neurological examination is unremarkable. Routine blood tests are normal, and a plain CT scan of the head is unremarkable. A lumbar puncture does not show xanthochromia. A CT angiogram of the head and neck vessels reveals a pseudo-lumen of the carotid artery. What treatment would you initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing an internal carotid artery dissection on the left side, resulting in a partial Horner’s syndrome without anhidrosis. This is because the facial sweat glands are innervated by sympathetic fibers located on the external carotid artery, not the internal carotid artery.

      Surgery is not typically recommended for spontaneous carotid artery dissections. However, all dissections increase the risk of thromboembolic complications due to turbulent flow, so antiplatelet or anticoagulation therapy is usually initiated. While there is little evidence to determine which is better, antiplatelets are generally considered safer. Angioplasty and stent placement may be considered for patients with persistent ischemic symptoms despite adequate anticoagulation, those who cannot take anticoagulant/antiplatelet therapy, or those with significantly compromised cerebral blood flow.

      Given the patient’s vision loss, there is a possibility of amaurosis fugax, which further supports the need for anti-thromboembolic agents.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or pre-ganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while post-ganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon arrival in the United Kingdom. The test comes back positive, but his chest X-ray appears normal, and he is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine (vitamin B6). However, he returns to the hospital four weeks later complaining of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid-induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid Monotherapy for TB Prevention

      Isoniazid monotherapy is a treatment used to prevent active tuberculosis in individuals who have been exposed to M. tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that isoniazid-induced hepatitis can occur in approximately 1% of patients, with a higher risk in those over the age of 35. The risk of hepatitis is less than 0.3% in patients under 20 years old, but increases to 2-3% in individuals over 50 years old.

      Aside from hepatitis, other side effects of isoniazid therapy include peripheral neuritis, which can be prevented by taking pyridoxine prophylactically. Additionally, a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome may also occur. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any adverse reactions while on isoniazid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an acutely swollen leg. An ultrasound scan reveals a femoral vein venous thrombosis. Later, he experiences tachypnea and drops his oxygen saturation level to 88% on air. On auscultation, there is wheezing bilaterally and reduced air on the left with hyper-resonant percussion note. An urgent CT thorax is requested, which shows a large 5 cm pneumothorax, bilateral segmental PEs, and a left-sided 4x3x2 cm lung cancer. Considering the risk of bleeding following insertion of a chest drain to treat the pneumothorax, what decision should be made regarding his anticoagulation for PE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated Heparin infusion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Dilemma for a Patient with Pneumothorax and Pulmonary Embolism

      This patient presents a dilemma in terms of treating his pneumothorax while minimizing the risk of bleeding due to his anticoagulation treatment. Prescribing only prophylactic tinzaparin would be irresponsible as it is not sufficient to prevent further clot formation or break down the pulmonary embolism. While newer anticoagulants like rivaroxaban and apixaban are gaining popularity in treating DVTs and PEs, their inability to be accurately monitored poses an increased risk for this patient. Thrombolysis is only recommended for massive PE or PE with signs of shock. Treatment dose LMWH is a reasonable option, but its long half-life makes it harder to control and monitor bleeding. Therefore, heparin infusion is the most sensible treatment for this patient as it can be easily stopped and monitored every four hours to adjust the dose accordingly. For more information, refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Scenarios on Pulmonary Embolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 8 - Which organism is the most probable cause of the vomiting in ten individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which organism is the most probable cause of the vomiting in ten individuals who ate at a Chinese restaurant and became ill five hours later, with nine of them consuming meat and rice dishes and one female consuming vegetarian dishes with rice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Bacillus cereus and Staph. aureus as Causes of Food Poisoning

      Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria, including Bacillus cereus and Staph. aureus. In a typical case of Bacillus cereus infection, vomiting occurs within one to five hours after eating contaminated food. The source of contamination is often the food itself, such as in the case of rice that has been infected. On the other hand, Staph. aureus is also a possible cause of food poisoning, although it is less likely in this particular case. It is important to be aware of these bacteria and their symptoms in order to prevent and treat food poisoning effectively.

      Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria, including Bacillus cereus and Staph. aureus. In a typical case of Bacillus cereus infection, vomiting occurs within one to five hours after eating contaminated food. The source of contamination is often the food itself, such as in the case of rice that has been infected.

      On the other hand, Staph. aureus is also a possible cause of food poisoning, although it is less likely in this particular case. It is important to be aware of these bacteria and their symptoms in order to prevent and treat food poisoning effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 5-minute episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 5-minute episode of slurred speech earlier in the day. His wife noticed that his face was drooping to one side as well. He had no arm weakness and is now completely back to normal. He is normally well and on no regular medication and is not allergic to any medication. He works as a plumber and smokes 10 cigarettes per day for the last 35 years and drinks alcohol socially. On further questioning he mentions that he had a similar episode also lasting 5 minutes four days ago whilst at work.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 135/70 mmHg and his heart rate is 58/min. He has no focal neurology and his cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable. He has been given 300mg of Aspirin by the paramedics. His blood tests are as follows:

      Hb 138 g/l
      Platelets 283 * 109/l
      WBC 8.1 * 109/l
      INR 1.1
      PT 13 seconds

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.4 mmol/l
      Urea 6.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 89 µmol/l
      CRP 5 mg/l
      Total cholesterol 3.8 mmol/l
      HDL 1.3 mmol/l

      His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm and rate of 65/min.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      This man has experienced two crescendo TIAs within a week, which puts him at high risk and requires urgent treatment. He needs to be admitted and undergo a CT head and carotid doppler within 24 hours. Although his ABCD score is 3, which would typically classify him as low-risk, the presence of crescendo episodes makes this score irrelevant. Thrombolysis is not necessary as his neurology has resolved. An outpatient TIA clinic and imaging and dopplers within a week are also not appropriate due to the crescendo episodes.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and a rash after returning from a backpacking trip in rural Thailand. He has been experiencing general malaise for the past few days, along with a frontal headache and a rash that appeared last night. Upon examination, he has tender cervical lymphadenopathy and a maculopapular rash on his trunk. Additionally, there is a small painless erythematous lesion on his lower calf with a necrotic center.

      Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scrub typhus

      Explanation:

      Scrub typhus is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of an eschar. Although malaria is prevalent in the area, the rash makes it an improbable diagnosis. Dengue fever typically presents with a rash, fever, and lower back pain, but the absence of arthropathy rules it out as a possibility.

      Understanding Typhus: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      Typhus is a group of diseases caused by rickettsia bacteria that are transmitted between hosts by arthropods. There are different types of typhus, including endemic typhus, epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, and spotted fever. Endemic typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi and is transmitted by fleas on rats. It occurs worldwide, particularly in warm coastal regions. Epidemic typhus, on the other hand, is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and is transmitted by body lice. It is more common in central and eastern Africa, as well as central and South America. Scrub typhus, caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, is transmitted by harvest mites on humans or rodents and is more common in Asia. Spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia spotted fever group, is spread by ticks and includes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

      Despite their differences, all types of typhus share common symptoms such as fever, headache, and malaise. A rash is also a common feature, typically maculopapular, and begins on the trunk before spreading to the extremities. Later complications may include meningoencephalitis. Management of typhus involves the use of doxycycline.

      In summary, understanding the different types of typhus, their symptoms, and management is crucial in preventing and treating this group of diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with left flank pain and bloody urine. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      This patient developed nephrotic syndrome as a result of her penicillamine treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, which led to renal vein thrombosis. Symptoms of renal vein thrombosis can vary from being asymptomatic to presenting with flank pain and frank haematuria. The presence of ankle swelling, proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and abnormal renal function in the patient’s medical history should indicate the possibility of proteinuria.

      Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.

      It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old woman visits the Dermatology Clinic complaining of an intermittent itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits the Dermatology Clinic complaining of an intermittent itchy rash that has been bothering her for the past 4 months. The rash appears at any time of the day without any identifiable trigger and lasts up to 4 hours each time. She has noticed that cetirizine helps alleviate the symptoms. Her medical history includes hypertension, chronic pain, and recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she has multiple wheals over her lower legs and back with erythematous margins. Which medication is likely contributing to her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Chronic Urticaria

      Chronic urticaria is a condition characterized by prolonged symptoms and can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune diseases, lymphoma, and drug reactions. Aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications like ibuprofen and opiates are common causative drugs that should be avoided. On the other hand, amitriptyline is a treatment for refractory chronic urticaria and not a cause. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause photosensitivity, but they do not cause chronic urticaria. Propranolol does not cause chronic urticaria, but it can worsen existing dermatological conditions like psoriasis. Trimethoprim can cause skin reactions, including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, but it does not cause chronic urticaria. Understanding the relationship between medications and chronic urticaria is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old patient with SLE for the past five years complains of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old patient with SLE for the past five years complains of sudden onset of shortness of breath over the last three days. On examination, the pulse rate is 100/min, BP 120/80 mm Hg, and SaO2 of 94% on air. All other organ system examinations are normal. FBC, U&E, and INR are within normal limits, but D-dimers are positive. A chest radiograph and ECG show no abnormalities. What is the most suitable investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CTPA

      Explanation:

      Anti-Phospholipid Antibody Syndrome in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Patients

      Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at risk of developing anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome (APAS). This syndrome is characterized by the presence of anticardiolipin antibodies or lupus anticoagulant on two occasions over a period of 12 weeks, along with a history of thrombus or recurrent pregnancy loss. If a patient has experienced one pregnancy loss greater than 10 weeks in gestation, and other causes of pregnancy loss have been excluded, they may also be diagnosed with APAS. Patients with APAS may have either primary or secondary APAS, depending on whether or not they have an associated autoimmune condition.

      It is important to note that other causes of shortness of breath in SLE, such as shrinking lung syndrome and pneumonitis, do not present acutely. Therefore, pulmonary function tests or HRCT scans are unlikely to be of any benefit in diagnosing APAS. Early detection and management of APAS is crucial in preventing complications such as thrombosis and recurrent pregnancy loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic for evaluation of his long-standing trigeminal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic for evaluation of his long-standing trigeminal neuralgia. He has been experiencing symptoms for five years and has been frequently reviewed by neurology, but his condition has not improved. The patient suffers from severe shooting pain affecting the right side of his lower face, with each episode lasting about an hour. The frequency of attacks has increased over time, and he now experiences four to five episodes per week. The patient's symptoms have significantly impacted his quality of life, and he rarely leaves his house due to fear of an attack.

      Carbamazepine was initially prescribed four years ago, which provided some relief, but the patient was intolerant due to drowsiness. Subsequent trials of oxcarbazepine, lamotrigine, and baclofen did not provide lasting relief. The patient was recently diagnosed with depression and started on sertraline. He also has type 2 diabetes, which is managed with diet and metformin 500 mg TDS. The patient has been unable to work as a school-teacher for the past two years due to his symptoms. Although he was previously hesitant to consider surgical intervention, he is now willing to try any options that could improve his symptoms.

      MRI brain with/without contrast showed no evidence of inflammation, space-occupying lesion, extra-cranial mass along the course of trigeminal nerves, widespread demyelination plaque, or previous infarction. There was also no abnormal enhancement of the trigeminal nerves.

      What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microvascular decompression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face may be more susceptible to pain, known as trigger areas, and the pain may remit for varying periods.

      It is important to note that there are red flag symptoms and signs that may suggest a serious underlying cause, such as sensory changes, ear problems, history of skin or oral lesions, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, or onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. However, if there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology may be necessary. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - An 87-year-old male presents to the diabetic ulcer clinic for regular foot care...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old male presents to the diabetic ulcer clinic for regular foot care when regular observations note his heart rate to be 42 beats per minute. His blood pressure is 140/60 mmHg and he reports no recent episodes of syncope. A 12 lead ECG demonstrates Mobitz type 1 rhythm at 42 beats/ minute. A 24 hours tape performed as an outpatient demonstrates bradycardia with up to 2.7 second pauses. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and angina. His medications include ramipril, furosemide, verapamil, metformin and GTN on an as-required basis. During this second encounter, his heart rate is 41 beats/min and his blood pressure is 120/ 58 mmHg. He informs you that he is guided by you in terms of the most appropriate treatment. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop verapamil

      Explanation:

      The management of bradycardia and indications for pacemaker insertion are the focus of the question. As the patient is asymptomatic and maintaining a reasonable blood pressure, there is no need for a temporary pacing wire. Administering digoxin would only worsen the atrioventricular node block, and stopping furosemide is unlikely to affect the heart rate. The decision to insert a pacemaker depends on whether the patient has recently experienced a myocardial infarction. For post-MI patients, complete heart block, Mobitz type II, trifascicular block, symptomatic bradycardia, or bilateral bundle branch block are indications. For non-post-MI patients, indications include symptomatic second and third-degree heart block, haemodynamic compromise, or VT caused by bradycardia. In this case, the patient is asymptomatic and not post-MI, and there is no haemodynamic compromise. Therefore, there are no indications for a pacemaker, and stopping verapamil, an AV node blocker, should suffice.

      Understanding Atrioventricular Block

      Atrioventricular (AV) block, also known as heart block, is a condition where there is a disruption in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles. There are three types of AV block: first-degree, second-degree, and third-degree.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a PR interval greater than 0.2 seconds. This type of heart block is relatively common and usually asymptomatic, so it does not require treatment.

      Second-degree heart block is further divided into two types: type 1 (also known as Mobitz I or Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). In type 1, there is a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs. In type 2, the PR interval is constant, but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.

      Third-degree heart block, also known as complete heart block, is the most severe type of AV block. In this type, there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes.

      To diagnose and differentiate between the types of heart block, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is typically performed. Treatment for heart block depends on the severity and type of block, and may include medications, pacemaker implantation, or other interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history comes to the clinic complaining of cough and haemoptysis. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals a cavitating mass in the right hilar region. Further tests, including bronchoscopy and biopsy, confirm the diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. Additionally, the patient's calcium levels are found to be 3.89, and the parathyroid hormone related peptide (PTHrH) is elevated. Based on these findings, what is the most probable histological diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Carcinomas and their Associated Symptoms

      Squamous cell carcinomas are a type of cancer that typically develops in the upper respiratory tract, with 60% to 80% of cases occurring in the proximal portions of the tracheobronchial tree. These carcinomas are often characterized by extensive necrosis, which can lead to the formation of cavities. One common symptom associated with squamous cell carcinomas is hypercalcemia, which is an elevated level of calcium in the blood. Additionally, these carcinomas are often associated with increased levels of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrH).

      On the other hand, small cell carcinomas may also be associated with hypercalcemia, but they are not typically associated with increased levels of PTHrH. It is important to note that the symptoms and characteristics of different types of carcinomas can vary widely, and a proper diagnosis and treatment plan should be developed in consultation with a medical professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old IV drug user presents with fatigue, fever, and a new heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old IV drug user presents with fatigue, fever, and a new heart murmur. Upon examination, the doctor notes a temperature of 38.5 oC, blood pressure of 110/85 mmHg, and a pulse of 90 bpm with a pansystolic murmur. The patient has injection marks consistent with heroin use. Lab results show a low hemoglobin level of 100 g/l, a high white cell count of 14.2 × 109/l, and a high C-reactive protein level of 280 mg/l. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals mitral regurgitation with valve vegetations. Blood cultures identify Bacillus cereus. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Interventions for Bacillus cereus Infection

      Bacillus cereus infection is a rare but potentially serious condition that can cause endocarditis. While most isolates of B. cereus are resistant to penicillins and cephalosporins, glycopeptides such as vancomycin are highly effective and have little to no evidence of resistance. Therefore, intravenous vancomycin is the most appropriate intervention for B. cereus infection. Quinolone resistance is not as prevalent, but around 10% of patients may have an intermediate or quinolone-resistant strain, making ciprofloxacin less effective. Ampicillin is the intervention of choice for listeria infection, while meropenem and linezolid are potential alternatives for listeria meningitis. Cephalosporins should not be used for empiric treatment of Bacillus spp infection due to significant levels of resistance. Overall, the choice of intervention depends on drug susceptibilities and response to treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated in cardiology clinic for potential intervention for...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated in cardiology clinic for potential intervention for severe aortic stenosis. She was diagnosed with the condition four months ago after experiencing progressive exertional breathlessness and reduced exercise tolerance. The patient expressed interest in undergoing either surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) or transcatheter aortic valve insertion (TAVI) at her initial review. She has since undergone various assessments to determine her suitability for the procedures.

      The patient has a good functional status, lives independently with her daughter, and participates in a wide range of community activities. She has a long-standing diagnosis of hypertension and suffered a left cortical stroke three years ago. Additionally, she has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease but quit smoking 30 years ago. Her regular medications include amlodipine, ramipril, clopidogrel, simvastatin, and an ipratropium inhaler. She uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed and has no known drug allergies.

      The patient's investigations revealed severe aortic stenosis with no other valve disease, normal systolic function, and no anatomic contraindications to TAVI. Coronary angiography showed no evidence of coronary artery disease, while iliofemoral angiography revealed severe calcification and tortuosity of iliac arteries, making her unsuitable for transfemoral TAVI. Pulmonary function tests indicated moderate obstructive lung disease.

      Based on the assessment, surgical aortic valve replacement was estimated to carry a 4.1% risk of mortality and 3.7% risk of permanent stroke (intermediate risk). No contraindications to transapical transcatheter aortic valve insertion were identified.

      What is the recommended intervention for this patient's severe aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical aortic valve replacement with bioprosthetic valve

      Explanation:

      The patient’s comorbidities put her at an intermediate risk for SAVR, which was calculated using the STS risk calculator. While TAVI was initially developed for patients who were deemed unfit for SAVR due to high predicted mortality, recent research has shown that transfemoral TAVI can be a suitable intervention for some patients with a low or intermediate risk associated with SAVR. As patients age, transfemoral TAVI is increasingly preferred over SAVR.

      However, transapical TAVI outcomes are inferior to SAVR, and this intervention is only appropriate for individuals with an unacceptably high surgical risk. When both SAVR and transapical TAVI are possible, SAVR is strongly recommended for patients of all ages.

      Therefore, for this patient, bioprosthetic SAVR is the preferred intervention over transapical TAVI. Unfortunately, the anatomy of her iliac arteries makes transfemoral TAVI technically impossible.

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.

      Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout presents with a decline in health over the past three months. He reports feeling lethargic with reduced energy and has gone from using walking sticks to a frame. He experiences occasional vomiting and night sweats, and his wife is concerned about his weight loss.

      During the examination, the patient presents with clubbing and a red macular rash on his hands. He complains of itching in his fingers, and his spleen is palpable three centimeters below the costal margin. A pansystolic murmur is heard, and there are crepitations in both lungs. The patient begins to shake vigorously but remains conscious and feels clammy. He is tender across his gluteal muscles.

      Lab results show microcytosis, schistocytes, and cell fragments in the blood film. His Hb is 109 g/l, Na+ is 130 mmol/l, platelets are 276 * 109/l, and K+ is 3.7 mmol/l. His WBC count is 10.4 * 109/l, with neuts at 9.8 * 109/l and lymphs at 0.4 * 109/l. His eosin count is 0.1 * 109/l, and his CRP is 42 mg/l. His ESR is 32 mm/hr.

      An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with a rate of 102/min, and a chest x-ray reveals a globular heart and bilateral interstitial shadowing.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of strep endocarditis is gradual and may include the development of a new murmur. Distinguishing this condition from other possibilities can be challenging. For instance, congestive cardiac failure typically involves a history of heart attacks and physical signs such as elevated jugular venous pressure or swelling in the ankles, which are not evident in this case. Lymphoma, on the other hand, often presents with palpable lymph nodes in the neck, armpits, or groin, or radiological evidence of enlarged lymph nodes in the chest. Although there is evidence of an enlarged spleen in this case, there is no indication of lymphadenopathy.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman has been referred to the General Medical Clinic with persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been referred to the General Medical Clinic with persistent dysuria. She has been experiencing pain on passing urine and has noticed haematuria towards the end of micturition since returning from a long trip around Asia. Despite trying a couple of antibiotics, her symptoms have not improved. Investigations reveal the presence of Schistosome eggs in her urine sample. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Praziquantel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Parasitic Infections: A Brief Overview

      Parasitic infections are a common health concern in tropical regions. Here are some treatment options for different types of parasitic infections:

      Praziquantel is used to treat urinary schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma haematobium. Diagnosis is made with the raised eosinophils and the schistosome eggs in the urine. Other forms of schistosomiasis (Schistosoma mansoni, Schistosoma japonicum) affect the portal venous system, the lung and the central nervous system. With urinary schistosomiasis there is an increased risk of bladder cancer.

      Metronidazole is used to treat amoebic dysentery and amoebic liver abscesses (Entamoeba histolytica) and is also used in the treatment of giardiasis.

      Mebendazole is used to treat the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides; this remains asymptomatic in many cases.

      Nifurtimox is used to treat Trypanosoma cruzi, the organism responsible for causing Chagas disease.

      Niclosamide is used to treat tapeworm infections, which may be asymptomatic or present with iron deficiency anaemia ± GI disturbance.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of parasitic infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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