00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She is taking three medications and her current blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. She has noticed that her face has become rounder over time and she is experiencing more acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has shown impaired glucose tolerance. Additionally, she has been struggling with abdominal obesity and has noticed the appearance of purple stretch marks around her abdomen.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disease that causes weight gain, hypertension, and other symptoms. It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma producing ACTH. Diagnosis is made through urinary free-cortisol assay and differentiation of the cause is done through the dexamethasone-suppression test. Drug-resistant hypertension may be caused by chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnoea, or hyperaldosteronism. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that causes severe hypertension and other symptoms. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a group of syndromes featuring tumours of endocrine glands. Simple obesity can be differentiated from Cushing syndrome by specific signs such as easy bruising, facial plethora, proximal myopathy, and purple striae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to undergo a 24 hour urine collection.

      Which of the following urine albumin concentrations indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?

      Your Answer: 50 mg/day

      Correct Answer: 3.5 g/day

      Explanation:

      Understanding Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria

      Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not just an early indicator of renal involvement but also identifies an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, with an approximate twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients.

      To measure the total albumin excretion, the albumin: creatinine ratio is used as a useful surrogate. The urinary albumin:creatinine ratio is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. Microalbuminuria is indicated when the albumin:creatinine ratio is ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women). Proteinuria is indicated by a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol.

      In summary, understanding microalbuminuria and proteinuria is crucial in identifying early renal involvement and increased cardiovascular risk. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful tool in measuring total albumin excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and a serum creatinine level of 153 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Nephropathies and their Clinical Presentations

      Membranous glomerulonephritis and diabetic nephropathy rarely present with macroscopic haematuria, but rather with greater proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adults. On the other hand, IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerulus and often presents with macroscopic haematuria, which may be triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection. It usually presents asymptomatic haematuria and/or proteinuria and is a nephritic syndrome, but can also rarely present with nephrotic syndrome. Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a variant of IgA nephropathy, is associated with a petechial rash and systemic vasculitis. Although progression is slow, 20-30% of patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      140.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal function and hypercholesterolaemia. She suddenly experiences a hot, swollen, painful right great toe. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Medications and Gout: Understanding the Relationship

      Gout is a painful condition caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. While there are various factors that can contribute to the development of gout, medications can also play a role.

      Loop and thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout attacks. Other medications that can raise uric acid levels include nicotinic acid, low-dose aspirin, and ciclosporin. On the other hand, xanthine oxidase inhibitors like allopurinol and uricosuric agents like probenecid can help lower uric acid levels and prevent gout attacks.

      Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor used to treat hypertension, is not known to interfere with urate metabolism and is therefore unlikely to cause gout attacks. However, it can cause electrolyte imbalances and a decline in renal function, so monitoring is necessary.

      Warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist used for conditions like atrial fibrillation, is also not known to cause gout attacks.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and gout can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and prevent unnecessary pain and discomfort for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      114.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
      What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:

      Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.

      Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).

      Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.

      Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      115.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?

      Your Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate

      Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding croup, which is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding croup, which is accurate?

      Your Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it

      Explanation:

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline. While dexamethasone is the preferred and commonly used treatment for croup, prednisolone is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for croup in clinical guidelines. Dexamethasone is the standard corticosteroid used due to its efficacy and safety profile in managing croup symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.

      Your Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management

      Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      193.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy...

    Correct

    • You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns

      Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:

      Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.

      Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.

      Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.

      Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.

      Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².

      Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?

      Your Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR phototherapy

      Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are conducting an audit of anti-epileptic drug prescribing at the clinic, to...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an audit of anti-epileptic drug prescribing at the clinic, to evaluate the frequency of prescribing branded versus generic medications.

      Which of the following drugs is crucial to prescribe by brand name?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing by brand is crucial when it comes to phenytoin and carbamazepine, which are the top anti-epileptic medications.

      Antiepileptics: Prescribing by Brand

      For several years, healthcare professionals have been advised to prescribe certain antiepileptic medications by brand rather than generically. In November 2013, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued more specific guidance on how to treat individual antiepileptics. The guidance categorizes the more common antiepileptics into three categories: Category 1, Category 2, and Category 3.

      Category 1 includes phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and primodine. Patients taking these medications should be maintained on a specific manufacturer’s product.

      Category 2 includes sodium valproate, lamotrigine, clonazepam, and topiramate. For these medications, healthcare professionals should use clinical judgement and consult with the patient, taking into account seizure frequency and treatment history, to determine whether to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product.

      Category 3 includes levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, ethosuximide, and vigabatrin. For these medications, it is usually unnecessary to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product unless there are specific reasons such as patient anxiety or risk of confusion/dosing errors.

      Overall, the guidance aims to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive consistent and effective treatment by reducing the risk of switching between different manufacturers’ products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. He reports experiencing stiffness in the mornings as well.

      During the examination, you observe swelling in both the metacarpal phalangeal (MCP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. One of the fingers is swollen throughout its entire length.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is the most likely diagnosis when there is swelling in the DIP and dactylitis in an inflammatory arthritis case, while morning stiffness indicates either rheumatoid or psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the research methodology used by researchers to understand why general practitioners...

    Correct

    • What is the research methodology used by researchers to understand why general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for some cases of sore throat and to explore factors that influence their prescribing? The researchers selected 25 general practitioners who reflect a wide variety of characteristics that might influence prescribing and were selected from different places to avoid regional bias. A single researcher conducted face-to-face, open-ended interviews at participants' surgeries using an interview guide. As the study progressed, a further theoretical sample of 15 general practitioners was added, this selection being guided by the emerging analysis.

      Your Answer: A grounded theory methodology

      Explanation:

      Grounded Theory Methodology: Developing Theory through Data Analysis

      Grounded theory is a qualitative research methodology that involves constructing theory through the analysis of data. The process begins with the researcher asking questions designed to lead to the development of a theory. The researcher then identifies a suitable sample and analyzes the data to begin developing a theory. The researcher engages in a theoretical sampling process, continually collecting and analyzing data until no new ideas emerge. This process of constant comparative analysis is critical to grounded theory.

      The study Why do general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for sore throat? used grounded theory methodology to identify the reasons behind prescribing antibiotics. The results showed that general practitioners prescribe antibiotics for sicker patients and those from socioeconomically deprived backgrounds due to concerns about complications. They are also more likely to prescribe in pressured clinical contexts. The study was not influenced by selection bias, did not require a statistical power calculation, and did not lack validity.

      In conclusion, grounded theory methodology is a powerful tool for developing theory through data analysis. It allows researchers to identify themes and patterns in data and develop theories based on those patterns. The methodology is particularly useful for exploring complex phenomena and can be applied in a wide range of research settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old man presents to you after being seen at the TIA clinic...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to you after being seen at the TIA clinic and initiated on clopidogrel and atorvastatin. He is currently taking the following repeat medications:
      - Ramipril
      - Metformin
      - Omeprazole
      - Amlodipine
      - Gliclazide

      Are there any of his current medications that you should consider switching to an alternative due to potential drug interactions?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins and face. Which medication is most commonly associated with this type of photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs

      Photosensitivity is a frequently observed adverse effect of certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin reactions.

      Similarly, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin 2 receptor blockers (A2RBs) are also known to cause rashes, some of which may be photosensitive. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to advise patients to take appropriate precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      873.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a same-day appointment. She complains...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a same-day appointment. She complains of experiencing a sudden and severe headache during sexual intercourse the night before. The pain lasted for several hours before gradually subsiding. She had a similar episode two weeks ago but did not seek medical attention at the time. The patient reports that the headache has now completely resolved. She denies any history of medical conditions and illicit drug use. She is currently using a nexplanon implant for contraception.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Refer to the on-call acute medical team

      Explanation:

      The patient’s thunderclap headache could potentially be caused by various factors, but it is crucial to rule out subarachnoid haemorrhage as a possible cause. Therefore, a CT scan and lumbar puncture are necessary, and the patient should be referred to the acute medical team.

      The International Headache Society recognizes headaches associated with sexual activity (HSA) as a primary headache disorder, and the patient’s symptoms may fit the criteria for orgasmic headache. However, other potential causes must be ruled out before making this diagnosis. Triptans are the first-line treatment for HSA, and a headache diary may be appropriate if there is diagnostic uncertainty.

      Due to the presence of red flag features, outpatient referral is not appropriate, and neuroimaging should be arranged by the acute medical team.

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is worried and wants advice if she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman on the risks of ondansetron use during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE’s antenatal care guidance suggests that ondansetron may increase the chance of a baby being born with a cleft lip or palate, but there are no recognised risks for the mother or newborn. Claims of a risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies or severe congenital heart defects in newborns are not supported by current evidence.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².

      During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      199.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 420 ms. He takes oral quetiapine regularly. He was started on a course of clarithromycin for a recently suspected tonsillitis and has now recovered. He reported no new symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: No intervention required

      Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice

      Explanation:

      Normal QTc Interval in Patient Taking Quetiapine and Clarithromycin

      The normal values for QTc are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking medications such as quetiapine and clarithromycin, which are known to increase the QTc interval. In this scenario, an ECG was performed and the QTc interval was found to be normal. Therefore, no intervention is necessary at this time. It is important to continue monitoring the patient's QTc interval throughout their treatment with these medications. Proper monitoring can help prevent potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually transmitted infection after having sex with a new partner while on vacation with friends. He is not experiencing any symptoms but is anxious about the potential risk. You suggest that he visit the local sexual health clinic for specialized screening, but he is hesitant due to concerns about being recognized by someone he knows. As an alternative, you discuss the various tests that can be conducted in your general practice. You inform him that while you can collect some initial samples now, he will need to return for additional testing at a later time as it is still too early to detect any new infections.

      What is the appropriate timing for submitting a sample for Chlamydia screening for this patient?

      Your Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      When to Get Tested for Chlamydia

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that often doesn’t show any symptoms. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly if you are sexually active. The recommended time to get tested for chlamydia is at presentation and then again two weeks after a possible exposure. This is because it can take up to two weeks for the infection to show up on a test. If symptoms do develop, testing should be done immediately. It is also recommended to get tested again at six weeks and three months after a possible exposure to ensure that the infection has been fully treated. Remember, early detection and treatment of chlamydia is crucial for preventing long-term health complications.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.

      She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.

      What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatments for Heart Failure

      ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection

      The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.

      Glomerulonephritis
      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.

      Renal Stones
      Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma
      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.

      Urinary Tract Infection
      Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      83.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his roommate to the emergency room with an overdose of an unknown substance.

      His roommate found him unconscious in their apartment this morning and immediately called for an ambulance. There was an empty bottle of unlabelled pills on the kitchen counter which the patient admitted to taking.

      The patient is currently unresponsive and has shallow breathing. He is hooked up to a ventilator and his vital signs are being closely monitored. There is evidence of recent vomiting and he has a high fever.

      The patient has a history of suicidal ideation and his roommate is not sure where he obtained the pills from. Which of the following has he taken in overdose?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin Overdose: Symptoms and Management

      Aspirin overdose can be potentially fatal, as its effects are dose-related. Unlike with paracetamol, there are many early clinical features of aspirin overdose. These include nausea and vomiting, sweating, hyperventilation, vertigo, and tinnitus. More severe manifestations of overdose include lethargy, coma, seizures, hypotension, heart block, and pulmonary edema.

      Immediate referral to the hospital and close monitoring with supportive measures are necessary for managing aspirin overdose. In severe cases, dialysis may be indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by day. Her development has been normal and she is otherwise well. She has never had a urinary infection. There are no behavioural problems or family issues.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Enuresis: From Simple Measures to Medications

      Enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common problem among children. While most children outgrow it, some may need treatment. The first step is to try simple measures such as restricting fluid intake and encouraging regular toilet use. If bedwetting persists, an enuresis alarm may be considered as first-line treatment. Desmopressin, a medication that reduces urine production, can be used for rapid control or in combination with an alarm. However, it should be used second line after an alarm has been tried. Desmopressin with an anticholinergic medication like oxybutynin is another option, but specialist assessment is recommended. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be considered as a last resort after all other treatments have failed and with caution due to potential side effects. Overall, treatment options for enuresis should be tailored to the individual child and their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
      Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.

      Your Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers

      Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer: Peak flow rate 250 L/min

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.

      According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      21
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (5/6) 83%
Kidney And Urology (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (3/5) 60%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Passmed