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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Collateral ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.

      A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.

      Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.

      Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.

      Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      99.1
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her long-term partner approximately 12 hours ago. She has no medical or family history worth mentioning and is not currently using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 30 kg/m², and she does not smoke. What is the most efficient emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, the copper intra-uterine device is the most efficient option for emergency contraception and should be offered to all eligible women seeking such services. Unlike other medications, its effectiveness is not influenced by BMI. Additionally, it provides long-term contraception, which is an added advantage for the patient. If the copper intra-uterine device is not appropriate or acceptable to the patient, oral hormonal emergency contraception should be offered. However, the effectiveness of these contraceptives is reduced in patients with a high BMI. A double dose of levonorgestrel is recommended for patients with a BMI of over 26 kg/m² or body weight greater than 70kg. It is unclear which of the two oral hormonal contraceptives is more effective for patients with a raised BMI. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system and ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel are not suitable for emergency contraception. In conclusion, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective method for this patient because it is not affected by BMI, unlike oral hormonal emergency contraceptives.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.1
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  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome diarrhoea. She reports that she has had diarrhoea daily and it has a strong, malodorous smell. The unintentional weight loss is 7 kg over the last year and she has had a general decrease in energy.
      Which preparation would be most suitable to decrease her diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Medications and Their Uses

      Pancreatin is a mixture of digestive enzymes that aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. It is used in conditions where there is a lack of pancreatic enzyme production, such as cystic fibrosis and chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatin should be taken with meals and may cause side-effects such as nausea and hypersensitivity.

      Co-phenotrope is a combination drug that controls the consistency of faeces following ileostomy or colostomy formation and in acute diarrhoea. It is composed of diphenoxylate and atropine and may cause side-effects such as abdominal pain and lethargy.

      Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its reabsorption. It is used in conditions such as hypercholesterolaemia and primary biliary cholangitis. Side-effects may include constipation and nausea.

      Loperamide is an antimotility agent used in acute diarrhoea. It may cause side-effects such as constipation and nausea.

      Psyllium, also known as ispaghula, is a bulk-forming laxative that aids in normal bowel elimination. It is mainly used as a laxative but may also be used to treat mild diarrhoea.

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most frequent location for osteoclastoma to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent location for osteoclastoma to occur?

      Your Answer: Distal end of the femur.

      Correct Answer: Lower end of femur

      Explanation:

      Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours

      Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are commonly found in the knee area, specifically at the distal femur and proximal tibia. The proximal humerus and distal radius are also common sites for these tumours. In fact, approximately 50% of giant cell tumours are located in the knee area.

      These tumours are usually solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric. It is important to note that giant cell tumours can be benign or malignant, and their treatment depends on their location, size, and aggressiveness. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and ensuring a better prognosis for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with burns to her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with burns to her face, neck, right arm, and upper chest after a vaping device exploded. She has burns covering 15% of her body and weighs 55kg. Using the Parkland formula provided, calculate the amount of fluid replacement she will receive after 12 hours.

      Your Answer: 2000ml

      Explanation:

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      357.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old male comes to his pediatrician's office with his father. His father...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old male comes to his pediatrician's office with his father. His father is worried about his son's recent behavior. He explains that his son has been repeatedly checking the locks on the doors and windows in their house, causing him to be late for school. This behavior has been going on for a few weeks now.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Exposure and response prevention

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of OCD, which is characterized by obsessions or compulsions lasting for more than two weeks. The recommended initial treatment is a low-intensity psychological therapy, such as exposure and response prevention, according to NICE guidelines. While selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors may also be used, non-pharmacological interventions are typically tried first. Interpersonal therapy is not recommended for OCD. Active monitoring is not suitable in this case, as the patient’s condition is significantly impacting their daily life and requires a more proactive approach.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.7
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  • Question 7 - During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59...

    Correct

    • During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59 year old patient who has been referred to you for abnormal vaginal bleeding. The patient informs you that she underwent menopause at the age of 54. As a medical professional, you know that postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) is a common issue. What is the leading cause of PMB?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Causes of postmenopausal Bleeding: Understanding the Different Aetiologies

      postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) can be a concerning symptom for women, and it is important to understand the different causes that may be responsible. One of the most common causes is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a decrease in oestrogen levels after menopause. This can lead to thinning and drying of the vaginal mucosa, as well as other symptoms such as vaginal dryness and an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Treatment options include non-hormonal approaches such as lubricants and moisturisers, as well as hormonal treatments like topical preparations or systemic oestrogen replacement.

      Another potential cause of PMB is endometrial hyperplasia, which involves abnormal proliferation of the endometrium and is associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer. While this is not the most common cause of PMB, ruling it out is important in order to identify any potential issues. Endometrial cancer itself is also a significant concern, with a 10% probability of being the cause of PMB. Urgent referral to a gynaecology outpatient is necessary to exclude this possibility.

      Cervical cancer is not typically the cause of PMB, but it is important to discuss the cervical cancer screening programme with patients and any history of abnormal smears. Finally, the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can also trigger menstruation and lead to PMB, although this is not the most common cause. By understanding these different aetiologies, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat PMB in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      52.8
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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma. The neuromuscular blocking agent used during intubation and surgery acts by competitive inhibition at the receptor site. Which of the following drugs is a neuromuscular blocking agent that works through competitive inhibition?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Correct Answer: Pancuronium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuromuscular Blockers: Types and Actions

      Neuromuscular blockers are drugs that are commonly used during surgical procedures to induce muscle relaxation. There are two types of neuromuscular blockers: non-depolarising and depolarising blockers.

      Non-depolarising blockers, such as pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, and tubocurarine, act as competitive inhibitors by competing with acetylcholine for the receptor site. Their action is reversible and can be terminated by the use of an anticholinesterase, such as neostigmine or edrophonium.

      Neostigmine prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It is sometimes used to treat acute attacks of myasthenia gravis.

      Depolarising blockers, such as succinylcholine and suxamethonium, are irreversible. Their initial action is to cause stimulation, which may result in muscle fasciculation. Suxamethonium has a rapid onset and is short-acting, but its effects can be devastating in patients with a deficiency of the enzyme pseudocholinesterase.

      Edrophonium prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It was historically used to diagnose myasthenia during the Tensilon® test, but this test has a high risk for cardiac events.

      Understanding the types and actions of neuromuscular blockers is important for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective use during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      96.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
      Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Impaired LV contraction – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – increased LV end-systolic volume

      Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure

      Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      388.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
      Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?

      Your Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      100.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed