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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a lump in her groin area that she noticed last week. The lump is painless. During the examination, a soft, non-tender mass is palpable on her left inguinal area, medial and superior to the pubic tubercle. The lump disappears when she lies down, but when you try to reduce it and press on the mid-point of the inguinal ligament, it still protrudes if the patient stands up. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The hernia in question is a direct inguinal hernia, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. Direct inguinal hernias enter the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, while indirect inguinal hernias enter via the deep inguinal ring. To differentiate between the two, one can try to reduce the hernia and press on the deep inguinal ring. If the hernia stops protruding, it is an indirect hernia, but if it continues to protrude, it is a direct hernia. Femoral hernias are found below and lateral to the pubic tubercle and are more common in women, while obturator hernias pass through the obturator foramen and typically present with bowel obstruction. The patient in this case does not have any symptoms of obstruction. It should be noted that the type of hernia can only be confirmed during surgery.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the orthopaedic ward for a planned hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the orthopaedic ward for a planned hip replacement surgery. He has been evaluated for VTE prophylaxis. Despite his age, he has no other risk factors for VTE or bleeding. What are the recommended VTE prophylaxis measures for this patient?

      Your Answer: TED stockings

      Correct Answer: TED stockings + dalteparin sodium started at least 6 hours post-operation

      Explanation:

      For patients undergoing elective hip replacement, NICE recommends a combination of mechanical and pharmacological methods for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE). The patient should wear TED stockings upon admission, and pharmacological VTE prophylaxis should be administered after surgery, unless there are contraindications such as a risk of bleeding. Low molecular weight heparin, such as dalteparin sodium, is typically started 6 hours after surgery, but other pharmacological methods may also be used. While mechanical prophylaxis with TED stockings is necessary for this patient, it is not sufficient on its own, especially as there is no risk of bleeding. Pharmacological prophylaxis is not started before surgery due to the risk of bleeding during the operation, and a time window is often used postoperatively in case of haematoma formation. Pharmacological prophylaxis should be continued for up to 35 days after surgery.

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.

      There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.

      In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.

      Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.

      Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man was driving under the influence of alcohol at a high...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man was driving under the influence of alcohol at a high speed, with his seat belt on. He crashed into a brick wall at approximately 140 km/h. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he was found to be in a comatose state. Although his CT scan showed no abnormalities, he remained in a persistent vegetative state. What is the probable underlying reason for this?

      Your Answer: Intracerebral haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Diffuse axonal injury

      Explanation:

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that spreads to the right side. During examination, his sclera appear yellow, and he experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen with localized guarding. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 95/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, saturation 99% on 2L, temperature 39.5ºC, and Glasgow coma score 14/15 (confused speech). Which of the following diagnoses could account for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s cholangitis triad consists of three symptoms: fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Meanwhile, Reynolds Pentad, which includes jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever/rigors, shock, and altered mental status, is linked to ascending cholangitis. Before conducting further investigations on the biliary tree, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography for common bile duct stones, or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, the patient must first receive adequate resuscitation.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

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  • Question 5 - You are consulting with a 30-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Correct

    • You are consulting with a 30-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a committed relationship for 3 years, but this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.
      Before providing advice, you proceed to gather a complete psychosexual history. What information from the following list would indicate a physical rather than psychological origin for his condition?

      Your Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications. Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, problems or changes in a relationship, major life events, and psychological problems. On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history (cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological), operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs recognized as associated with ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.

      For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with fever and pain in the upper right quadrant....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with fever and pain in the upper right quadrant. Her blood work reveals an elevated CRP and an ultrasound confirms acute cholecystitis. The patient is administered analgesia and IV fluids. What other treatment options are likely to be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics + laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week

      Explanation:

      Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.

      The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.

      Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.

      The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.

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  • Question 7 - You are a member of the surgical team and are currently attending to...

    Incorrect

    • You are a member of the surgical team and are currently attending to a 36-year-old female patient who has been involved in a car accident. She has sustained a fractured femur and is experiencing chest pain. Her medical history reveals that she has asthma which has been poorly controlled. The patient has been admitted for surgical repair and is receiving general anesthesia, nitrous oxide, and an epidural for pain relief. However, you have noticed that her breathing is becoming more labored and she is complaining of chest pain. Upon checking her vital signs, you observe that her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg, heart rate is 150 beats per minute, and temperature is 37ºC. During your examination, you also notice that her left chest is hyper-resonant. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      Caution should be exercised when using nitrous oxide in patients with a pneumothorax. This is particularly relevant for the patient in question, who has been in a car accident and is experiencing chest pain and a hyperresonant chest, indicating the presence of a pneumothorax. Administering nitrous oxide to such a patient can lead to the development of a tension pneumothorax, as the gas may diffuse into gas-filled body compartments and increase pressure. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a tension pneumothorax, including a high respiratory rate, low blood pressure, and high heart rate, as well as increasing shortness of breath and chest pain.

      An allergy to epidural pain relief is an unlikely cause of the patient’s deterioration, as there are no indications of an allergic reaction and the examination findings point to a tension pneumothorax. Malignant hyperthermia is also an unlikely explanation, as the patient does not exhibit the typical symptoms associated with this condition. Similarly, while pregnancy is a risk factor for pulmonary embolus, the examination findings suggest a tension pneumothorax as the most likely diagnosis, particularly given the patient’s past medical history of poorly controlled asthma, which is also a risk factor for pneumothorax.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden onset of pain and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the ED with sudden onset of pain and swelling in his left testicle. During the examination, the physician notes the absence of the cremasteric reflex. What additional finding would provide the strongest evidence for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retracted testicle

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is characterized by sudden onset of acute pain, unilateral swelling, and retraction of the testicle, along with the absence of the cremasteric reflex. This distinguishes it from other causes of testicular pain and swelling, such as epididymitis and epididymo-orchitis, which typically have a slower onset. Perianal bruising is not a symptom of testicular torsion, but rather a sign of perianal hematoma. Although testicular torsion is usually very painful, a pain score below 8/10 does not necessarily rule it out. A temperature is more indicative of an infective process like epididymo-orchitis. While testicular torsion is more common in adolescents, it can also occur in a 32-year-old male, but other causes of testicular swelling should also be considered.

      Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).

      The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.

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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man complains of severe pain in his calves after walking his dog for only 10 minutes. Upon examination, his lower limbs appear normal except for the absence of posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses. He has a history of myocardial infarction three years ago and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. What medication should be prescribed daily for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease require treatment for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. This includes prescribing antiplatelet medication such as clopidogrel 75 mg (or aspirin 75 mg if clopidogrel is not suitable) and a high-intensity statin like atorvastatin 80mg. It is important to note that clopidogrel 300 mg and aspirin 300mg are loading doses and should not be taken daily. NICE recommends atorvastatin 80 mg as the statin of choice for secondary prevention of CVD.

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.

      For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with symptoms of coughing...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with symptoms of coughing and choking after meals, accompanied by yellow and brown sputum. He has a history of traumatic brain injury and required intubation for 2 months. On examination, mild crackles are heard in the right middle zone. His vital signs include a heart rate of 89/min, respiratory rate of 21/min, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 89%, and temperature of 37.0ºC. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-esophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Long-term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients can lead to the formation of a tracheo-esophageal fistula, which can cause symptoms such as productive cough, choking after feeds, and aspiration pneumonia. Other potential complications, such as pneumatocele, obstructive fibrinous tracheal pseudomembrane, and tracheomalacia, are less likely based on the patient’s clinical presentation.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (6/10) 60%
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