-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which of the following best describes the therapeutic effect of calcium gluconate when used in treatment for hyperkalaemia:
Your Answer: Reduces cardiac cell membrane excitability
Explanation:Calcium resonium is an ion-exchange resin that exchanges sodium for potassium as it passes through the intestine, leading to excretion of potassium from the body. Salbutamol and insulin act to increase intracellular uptake of K+ via Na-K ATP pump. Sodium bicarbonate acts to correct acidosis and thus promotes intracellular uptake of K+. Calcium gluconate acts to protect the cardiac membrane and has no effect on serum K+ levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids And Electrolytes
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome and has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.Which of these assertions about Cushing's syndrome is correct?
Your Answer: The commonest cause is an adenoma of the pituitary gland
Correct Answer: Diagnosis can be confirmed by a dexamethasone suppression test
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.Because cortisol enhances the vasoconstrictive impact of endogenous adrenaline, patients with Cushing’s syndrome are usually hypertensive.Hyperglycaemia (due to insulin resistance) rather than hypoglycaemia is a common symptom.Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A patient presents with a necrolytic migratory rash. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL. Following further investigations, she is diagnosed with glucagonoma.Which SINGLE statement regarding glucagon is true?
Your Answer: It makes fatty acids available for oxidation
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which of the following immunoglobulin molecules is the most abundant in secretions (such as saliva and breast milk):
Your Answer: IgA
Explanation:IgA is the predominant antibody class in secretions and tremendous quantities are secreted into various body spaces and onto mucosal surfaces (the gut lumen, the pharynx and sinuses, the larger airways, although not the alveoli). Because of its size, the majority of IgM is found in the circulation.Along with IgM, IgD is predominant among the surface receptors of mature B cells, where it plays a key role in B cells activation.IgE has the lowest concentration in normal human serum. It plays a prominent role in immune responses to helminth parasites, and in allergic reactions.IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and constitutes 75 percent of serum immunoglobulin in an adult human
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line:
Your Answer: A line dividing muscle fibres into sarcomeres
Explanation:Each muscle fibre is divided at regular intervals along its length into sarcomeres separated by Z-lines. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?
Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Explanation:This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L). Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults. In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding gentamicin?
Your Answer: Gentamicin is effective against pneumococci.
Correct Answer: Gentamicin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria.
Explanation:Gentamicin is the aminoglycoside of choice in the UK and is a parenterally administered, broad spectrum antibiotic typically used for moderate to severe gram negative infections. However, it is inactive against anaerobes. There is poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci. It is usually given in conjunction with a penicillin or metronidazole (or both) when used for the blind treatment of undiagnosed serious infections. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity are the main toxic effects due to damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).It is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis and should be used with great care in renal disease as it may result in accumulation and a higher risk of toxic side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
The blood test reports of a 56-year-old female are sent for your review. She seems acutely sick and has had multiple infections over the past few months. Her complete blood count report shows neutropenia. Which one of the following options is true with regards to neutropenia?
Your Answer: It is caused by hyposplenism
Correct Answer: It can be caused by both radiotherapy and chemotherapy
Explanation:A total neutrophil count of less than 2 x 109/L is defined as neutropenia. It can be caused by the following:1. viral infections2. SLE3. RA4. hypersplenism5. chemo- and radiotherapy6. vitamin B12 and folate deficiency7. drug reactions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. The attending physician is considering appendicitis. Inside the operating room, the surgeon asks the medical student to locate the McBurney's point prior to the first incision.Which of the following is the surface anatomy of the McBurney's point?
Your Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus
Explanation:Inflammation of the appendix is a significant public health problem with a lifetime incidence of 8.6% in men and 6.7% in women, with the highest incidence occurring in the second and third decade of life. While the rate of appendectomy in developed countries has decreased over the last several decades, it remains one of the most frequent emergent abdominal operations. Appendicitis can often result in anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and fever.McBurney’s point, which is found one-third of the distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus, is often the point of maximal tenderness in a patient with an anatomically normal appendix. A McBurney’s incision is chiefly used for cecostomy and appendectomy. It gives a limited exposure only, and should any doubt arise about the diagnosis, an infraumbilical right paramedian incision should be used instead.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent onset of urinary frequency and urgency, fever, chills, and muscle aches. He has a long history of nocturia and terminal dribbling. On rectal examination you find an exquisitely tender prostate.Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin for 14 days
Explanation:An acute focal or diffuse suppurative inflammation of the prostate gland is called acute bacterial prostatitis.According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in a man presenting with:A feverish illness of sudden onset which may be associated with rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia; Irritative urinary voiding symptoms; acute urinary retention; perineal or suprapubic pain and an exquisitely tender prostate on rectal examination.Treatment of acute prostatitis as recommended by NICE and the BNFare:Ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin for 14 daysAlternatively, trimethoprim can be used. Duration of treatment is still 14 days
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
The resting membrane potential of a neurone is usually about:
Your Answer: -70 mV
Explanation:In most neurones the resting potential has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response; because the size of the action potential is constant, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. Repolarisation occurs primarily due to K+efflux.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication types is administered as first-line management:
Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: Alpha-blockers
Explanation:The first line of management in controlling blood pressure and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crises is to use a combination of alpha and beta-adrenergic inhibition. In phaeochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are used to treat hypertensive episodes in the short term. Tachycardia can be managed by the careful addition of a beta-blocker, preferably a cardioselective beta-blocker, once alpha blockade has been established. Long term management of pheochromocytoma involves surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
The following statements about leukotrienes as chemical mediators of the acute inflammatory response are all true EXCEPT?
Your Answer: They decrease vascular permeability
Explanation:Leukotrienes increases (not decrease) vascular permeability during acute inflammation.All the other statements are correct
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old male is admitted to a rehabilitation centre with a history of multiple strokes, myopathy and learning disabilities since childhood. He is under the care of a multidisciplinary team, and his genetic testing reports show the presence of a mitochondrial disorder. Which one of the following diseases does this patient most likely have?
Your Answer: Tay-Sachs disease
Correct Answer: MELAS
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are a group of disorders caused by dysfunctional mitochondria. Most cases are maternally inherited, as we inherit our mitochondrial DNA from our mothers only, although mutations in nuclear DNA cause some cases.Examples of Mitochondrial Diseases include:1. Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes (MELAS)2. Mitochondrial epilepsy with ragged red fibres (MERRF)3. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)4. Diabetes mellitus and deafness (DAD)5. Neuropathy, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis (NARP)6. Leigh syndrome (subacute sclerosing encephalopathy). Red-green colour blindness and G6PD deficiency have an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Tay-Sachs Disease and spinal muscular atrophy have an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Regarding the abductor digiti minimi, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: It assists with flexion of the fifth finger at the middle phalanx
Explanation:Abductor digiti minimi is a short intrinsic muscle of the hand. It belongs to the group of muscles collectively called hypothenar muscles due to their acting on the 5th finger. Besides abductor digiti minimi, other hypothenar muscles include flexor digiti minimi brevis and opponens digiti minimi.The main function of abductor digiti minimi involves abduction of the 5th finger, as well as flexion of its proximal phalanx. Along with other hypothenar muscles, this muscle forms the hypothenar eminence on the medial side of the palm.Like other hypothenar muscles, abductor digiti minimi receives nervous supply from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from root values C8 and T1.Abductor digiti minimi receives arterial blood supply from the palmar branch of ulnar artery, palmar digital artery, as well as branches of the ulnar side of the superficial palmar arch. The venous blood from the muscle is drained via the venous networks of the palm into the deep veins of the arm (vv. ulnares).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in:
Your Answer: End-systolic volume
Explanation:An increase in ejection fraction means that a higher fraction of the end-diastolic volume is ejected in the stroke volume (e.g. because of the administration of a positive inotropic agent). When this situation occurs, the volume remaining in the ventricle after systole, the end-systolic volume, will be reduced. Cardiac output, stroke volume, and mean arterial pressure will be increased.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth.
Your Answer: The pulp cavity
Explanation:Within the central portion of the tooth lies the dental pulp. The pulp chamber provides mechanical support and functions as a barrier from external stimuli and the oral microbiome. The dental pulp is a unique tissue that is richly innervated and has an extensive microvascular network. Maintaining its vitality increases both the mechanical resistance of the tooth and the long-term survival. The junctional epithelium forms a band around the tooth at the base of the gingival sulcus, sealing off the periodontal tissues from the oral cavity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially to the:
Your Answer: Internal iliac nodes
Explanation:Above the pectinate line, the anal canal drains to the internal iliac lymph nodes which subsequently drain to the lumbar (para-aortic) nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that needs suturing.Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of 1% lidocaine, in this case, is true?
Your Answer: Lidocaine works by blocking fast voltage-gated sodium channels
Explanation:Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations. Her serum potassium levels are measured and come back at 6.2 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, and it shows some changes that are consistent with hyperkalaemia.Which of the following ECG changes is usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Peaked T waves
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalitiesK+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappearK+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive bleeding from her upper arm following a fall from a bicycle onto a fence. On inspection her biceps brachii muscle has been lacerated.How will the muscle heal from this injury? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Scar formation with no myocyte regeneration
Correct Answer: Satellite cells will produce a small number of regenerated myocytes
Explanation:Muscle heals with fibrous tissue to form a scar. Once cut, it will never regain its previous bulk or power. Within the scar a small number of myocytes (muscle cells) may be seen, which are formed from satellite cells but they contribute little to the function of the muscle overall.In more widespread ischaemic injury, such as critical ischaemic limb due to arterial compromise, or in compartment syndrome, damaged myocytes are replaced diffusely with fibrous tissue. This fibrous tissue contracts and reduces movement, and in extreme cases can pull the limb into abnormal positions such as in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Caseous necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:
Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Regarding penicillin antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Almost all patients with a true penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins.
Correct Answer: Patients with a history of atopy are at higher risk of hypersensitivity reactions.
Explanation:Allergic reactions to penicillins occur in 1 – 10% of exposed individuals; anaphylactic reactions occur in fewer than 0.05% of treated patients. Patients with a history of atopic allergy are at higher risk of anaphylactic reactions to penicillins. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after penicillin use should not receive a penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics; about 0.5 – 6.5 % of penicillin-sensitive patients will also be allergic to the cephalosporins. Patients with a history of a more minor rash (i.e. non-confluent, non-pruritic rash restricted to a small area of the body) or delayed reaction (rash occurring more than 72 hours after penicillin administration), may not be truly allergic and may be considered for penicillin or beta-lactam treatment in severe infection (although possibility of allergy should be borne in mind). Other beta-lactam antibiotics (including cephalosporins) can be used in these patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip flexion, but normal hip adduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?
Your Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:
Your Answer: External intercostal muscles
Explanation:Forceful expiration is primarily produced by the deeper thoracic muscles (internal and innermost intercostal muscles, subcostals and transversus thoracis) aided by contraction of the abdominal wall muscles which increase intra-abdominal pressure thus further reducing the volume of the thorax.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Nifedipine commonly causes which of the following adverse effects?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Ankle oedema
Explanation:Most common adverse effects of Nifedipine include:Peripheral oedema (10-30%)Dizziness (23-27%)Flushing (23-27%)Headache (10-23%)Heartburn (11%)Nausea (11%)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
During anaerobic respiration, what is the net generation of ATP molecules:
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:In anaerobic respiration, two ATP molecules are produced for every glucose molecule, as opposed to the 38 molecules of ATP produced in aerobic respiration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Which of these is an example of ordinal data?
Your Answer: Disease staging system
Explanation:Categorical data or data that is ordered is Ordinal data e.g. disease staging system, pain scoring system.Disease staging system is the correct answer
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?
Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve
Correct Answer: Nasociliary nerve
Explanation:Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?
Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction. Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
