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  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a cardiac arrest. The ambulance crew is currently performing resuscitation attempts. Upon arrival, the patient has been intubated and connected to a defibrillator monitor, which shows a slow sinus rhythm (pulseless electrical activity) at a rate of 30 complexes per minute. The patient has been administered the full drugs protocol in accordance with the latest Adult Advanced Life Support guidelines. What do these guidelines recommend regarding the use of adrenaline during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 1 mg should be given immediately and then two cycles whilst in this rhythm

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is an integral part of Advanced Life Support attempts during cardiac arrest, with a recommended dose of 1 mg given immediately and then after every 2 cycles. However, there is increasing evidence that the use of adrenaline during resuscitation attempts may be detrimental to a patient’s chance of survival. Atropine, a drug used in bradycardia, was removed from the algorithm for Advanced Life Support in 2010 as there was little evidence it had any effect in cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture followed by CT head

      Correct Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought to the Emergency department within an hour. Upon arrival, he is conscious and given a sublingual nitrate which provides some relief. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/85 mmHg. An ECG reveals 3 mm of ST segment elevation in leads II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Admission for cardiac catheterisation and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Initial and Long-Term Treatment for Inferolateral ST-Elevation MI

      The patient’s history and ECG findings suggest that they are experiencing an Inferolateral ST-elevation MI. The best initial treatment for this condition would be percutaneous coronary intervention. It is likely that the patient would have already received aspirin in the ambulance.

      For long-term treatment, the patient will require dual antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, a statin, a beta blocker, and an ACE-inhibitor. These medications will help manage the patient’s condition and prevent future cardiac events.

      It is important to follow the NICE guideline for Acute Coronary Syndrome to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of severe weakness, obtundation, and poor oral intake.

      One month ago, CT of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. He underwent cranial irradiation and received dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily.

      On examination he is unwell and disoriented. Temperature is 36.6°C, pulse is 100/min, respiratory rate is 28/min and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg supine. Chest examination and heart examination are normal. There is lower abdominal tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area. Diffuse muscle weakness is noted. No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.

      Investigations reveal:

      White cell count 19.5 ×109/L (4-11)

      Plasma glucose 40 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Urea 25 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 160 µmol/L (60-110)

      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (20-28)

      Urinalysis Glucose +++

      Protein ++

      Moderate bacteria seen

      Cultures of blood and urine are requested and he is treated with an intravenous sliding scale insulin.

      Which of the following IV fluids would you prescribe in conjunction with the insulin sliding scale for this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Excessive Hyperglycaemia in a Dehydrated Patient

      This patient is experiencing excessive hyperglycaemia, which is contributing to her symptoms and is related to hyperosmolarity. However, her normal bicarbonate levels suggest that she does not have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS), but rather dehydration. Additionally, her marked hyperglycaemia is likely caused by the dexamethasone she is taking, which is causing insulin resistance.

      To manage her condition, the patient requires IV normal saline to address her dehydration, along with insulin to regulate her blood glucose levels. Once her blood glucose levels have decreased to 10 mmol/L, she can switch to IV dextrose. This approach will help to address her crystalloid requirements and manage her hyperglycaemia effectively.

      In summary, managing excessive hyperglycaemia in a dehydrated patient requires a careful approach that addresses both the underlying cause of the hyperglycaemia and the patient’s hydration status. By providing IV fluids and insulin as needed, healthcare providers can help to regulate the patient’s blood glucose levels and improve their overall condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her mother.

    The girl...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her mother.

      The girl is experiencing elbow pain and is refusing to use her arm. Her mother reports that she was lifted up by her outstretched arms earlier in the day.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this case?

      Your Answer: Fracture of the shaft of the radius/ulnar

      Correct Answer: Subluxation of the radial head

      Explanation:

      Subluxation of the Radial Head in Children

      Subluxation of the radial head, also known as pulled elbow, is a frequent injury in young children. It occurs when the arm is pulled directly, causing the radial head to dislocate from its ligament. The child may experience pain in the elbow and have limited movement in supination and extension. They may also refuse to use their arm.

      Fortunately, a diagnosis can often be made without the need for an x-ray if the history is typical. Treatment involves providing pain relief and manipulating the elbow by supination while it is flexed at a 90° angle. With proper care, most children recover quickly from this injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found semi-conscious at home. Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 12, a fever of 39.5°C, a pulse of 120/min, a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, photophobia, and meningism. The medical team has already inserted a cannula and sent blood cultures. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: IV antibiotics followed by CT head and subsequent lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Importance of CT Head Scanning and Lumbar Puncture in Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      The availability of 24-hour computerised tomography (CT) head scanning in hospitals is crucial in the early recognition of any contraindications to lumbar puncture (LP) in patients with suspected bacterial meningitis. Prior to LP, a CT head scan should be performed to prevent the risk of brain herniation or coning. However, it is important to note that antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for CT head scanning as this may prove fatal. In any case of suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Clinicians can refer to the Meningitis Research Foundation Clinician’s Guide to Recognition and Early Management of Meningococcal Disease in Children for further information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      213.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain and dyspnoea that has worsened throughout the day. He underwent a right hip replacement and was discharged from BUPA one week ago. On examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 90% on air. There are no specific abnormalities on chest examination, but his chest x-ray shows consolidation at the right base. The ECG is also normal. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: CTPA chest

      Explanation:

      Consider Pulmonary Embolism in Post-Surgery Patients

      A patient who has recently undergone surgery and presents with chest x-ray changes and respiratory symptoms should be evaluated for pulmonary embolism (PE). While infection is a possibility, it is important to consider thromboembolic disease as it can be fatal if left untreated.

      A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may not be sufficient in this context, and a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) would provide a more definitive diagnosis. While raised FDPs/D-dimers can indicate PE, they are not specific and only provide value if they fall within a normal range. Blood cultures for chest infection are unlikely to yield significant results.

      It is crucial to consider the possibility of PE in post-surgery patients to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
      Temperature 36.2 °C
      Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
      Heart rate 112 bpm
      Saturations 96% on room air
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
      What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Maintenance fluids based on the Parkland formula

      Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h

      Explanation:

      Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance

      Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of 1 indicate?

      Your Answer: Incomprehensible sounds

      Correct Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a scoring system used to assess the level of consciousness of a patient. It ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 being the best. The scale is made up of three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response.

      The best eye response is determined by how the patient reacts to visual stimuli, such as opening their eyes spontaneously or in response to a command. The best verbal response is graded on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being no response and 5 being an oriented patient who can answer questions appropriately. Finally, the best motor response is assessed by observing the patient’s movements, such as their ability to follow commands or move in response to pain.

      Overall, the Glasgow coma scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness of a patient and determine the severity of their condition. By the different parameters and scores, medical professionals can provide appropriate treatment and care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed seizure in the resuscitation room. His blood glucose is recorded as 1.0 mmol/L. He does not have diabetes, nor other significant medical history. He is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose and he slowly recovers over the next one hour. A serum cortisol concentration later returns as 800 nmol/L (120-600). What investigation would be most relevant for this man?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Correct Answer: Prolonged 72 hour fast

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Spontaneous Hypoglycaemia

      The patient’s medical history and biochemical evidence suggest a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, with the most likely cause being an insulinoma. However, it is important to rule out the possibility of drug administration, and a sulphonylurea screen should be conducted. The patient has presented with symptomatic hypoglycaemia, despite not being diabetic and not having received insulin or a sulphonylurea. There is no indication of alcohol or drug misuse, nor is there any evidence of sepsis.

      To confirm a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, a prolonged fast is necessary. If the patient experiences hypoglycaemia during the fast, insulin and C peptide levels should be measured to confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s cortisol response during the hypoglycaemic episode (cortisol 800) rules out hypoadrenalism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      51.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (5/10) 50%
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