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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer: Smoking history

      Explanation:

      Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 08:30, and it is currently 10:00. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed

      Explanation:

      progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of lithium. After being stabilised, her baby is delivered without complications. However, during routine neonatal examinations, a pansystolic murmur is detected. Further evaluation through cardiac echocardiogram shows tricuspid incompetence with a large right atrium, a small right ventricle, and a low insertion of the tricuspid valve. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle. This condition is characterized by a low insertion of the tricuspid valve, which causes a large right atrium and a small right ventricle, leading to tricuspid incompetence. It is important to note that Ebstein’s anomaly is not the same as Fallot’s tetralogy, coarctation of the aorta, or transposition of the great arteries.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man presents to his doctor with a 5-month history of frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his doctor with a 5-month history of frequent urination, urgency, and weak stream. Upon urinalysis, blood is detected. Following a multiparametric MRI, it is confirmed that the patient has prostate cancer. To treat his condition, he is prescribed the GnRH agonist goserelin and the anti-androgen cyproterone acetate. The patient is advised on the importance of taking cyproterone acetate. What is the purpose of cyproterone acetate in this treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of GnRH agonists required for the intended effect

      Correct Answer: Prevent paradoxical increase in symptoms with GnRH agonists

      Explanation:

      GnRH agonists used in the treatment of prostate cancer may lead to a ‘tumour flare’ when initiated, resulting in symptoms such as bone pain and bladder obstruction. To prevent this paradoxical increase in symptoms, anti-androgens are used. GnRH agonists initially cause an increase in luteinizing hormone secretion, which stimulates the production of testosterone by Leydig cells in the testicles. Testosterone promotes the growth and survival of prostate cancer cells, leading to an increase in symptoms. Anti-androgens work by blocking androgen receptors, preventing testosterone from binding to them and suppressing luteinizing hormone secretion, thereby reducing testosterone levels and preventing ‘tumour flare’. Anti-androgens do not directly affect tumour growth rate.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and occasional per rectum bleeding for the past 3 months. During examination, he experiences tenderness on the left iliac fossa and is unable to tolerate a pr examination. His liver function tests at the general practice surgery showed an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Based on these symptoms, which of the following autoantibody screen findings is most likely?

      Your Answer: Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)

      Correct Answer: Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Autoantibody Results in a Patient with Abnormal Liver Function Tests and Colitis-like Symptoms

      The patient in question presents with abnormal liver function tests and colitis-like symptoms, including bloody stools and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. The following autoantibody results were obtained:

      – Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): This suggests the possibility of inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis (UC), which is strongly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by immunologically mediated inflammation of the bile ducts, leading to obstruction and a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction. ASMA and p-ANCA are often elevated in PSC, and an isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is common.
      – Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA): This enzyme is typically detected in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), which causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. However, given the patient’s gender and coexisting UC, PBC is less likely than PSC as a cause of the elevated ALP.
      – Raised anti-endomysial antibody: This is associated with coeliac disease, which can cause chronic inflammation of the small intestine and malabsorption. However, the patient’s symptoms do not strongly suggest this diagnosis.
      – Negative result for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies: SLE is not clinically suspected based on the patient’s history.
      – Raised anti-Jo antibody: This is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis, which are not suspected in this patient.

      In summary, the patient’s autoantibody results suggest a possible diagnosis of PSC in the context of UC and liver dysfunction. Further imaging studies, such as ERCP or MRCP, may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      291.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test for allergens

      Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children

      Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.

      Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.

      In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base...

    Incorrect

    • A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
      What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Ileal orifice

      Correct Answer: Teniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds

      The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.

      Taeniae Coli
      The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.

      Ileal Orifice
      The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.

      Omental Appendages
      The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Haustra Coli
      The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.

      Semilunar Folds
      The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.

      Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling with regard to her glycaemic control.
      Which one of the following is the best test that will help you to advise the patient?

      Your Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Tests During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important for diabetic mothers to have good glycaemic control to prevent complications such as increased miscarriage rate, birth defects, and perinatal mortality. One way to measure glycaemic control is through the HbA1c test, which measures the average blood glucose concentration over the lifespan of a haemoglobin molecule. A level below 6% is considered good. Folic acid supplementation is also important to prevent neural tube defects in the baby.

      The 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) is used to screen for diabetes in pregnant women. However, there is no such thing as a 30-minute GTT. Random blood sugar tests only provide a snapshot measurement and do not take into account overall control or other factors that could be affecting sugar levels at that moment. Sugar series tests are not useful for pre-pregnancy counselling as they do not provide information about overall control. Diabetic mothers should be cared for by a joint obstetric-endocrine team of clinicians throughout their pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      83.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for...

    Correct

    • An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for painful bone metastases. What would be the most suitable advice to give to his caregiver?

      Your Answer: A laxative will need to be used

      Explanation:

      Managing Pain in Terminally Ill Patients

      Managing pain in terminally ill patients can be challenging, but there are several strategies that can be employed to provide relief. When prescribing narcotics, it is important to start a laxative regimen to prevent constipation. Sedation may occur in the first few days, but this typically wears off. If pain relief is inadequate, the dose should be increased, although it is important to note that cocaine may produce hallucinations. It is also important to note that addiction is not a concern in terminally ill patients. Injections are typically three times more effective than oral medication. By employing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate pain and improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to the Emergency department after being found in the street.

      On examination, he appears dishevelled and drowsy, with a pulse of 116 bpm and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      His blood tests reveal a pH of 7.29 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 of 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 of 3.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), standard bicarbonate of 18 mmol/L (20-28), base excess of −9 mmol/L (+/−2), lactate of 1.6 mmol/L (0.5-2.2), blood glucose of 3.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and urine dipstick Ketones+++.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Starvation ketosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis in a Starving Patient

      This patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to starvation, which is evident from the positive ketones found in his urine dipstick. His medical history suggests that he may be an alcoholic and homeless. As a result of his starvation, his body has switched to ketone metabolism. However, he is not diabetic, and his lactate levels are normal.

      To treat this condition, the patient needs to receive IV dextrose to reverse the ketosis and correct his acidosis. However, it is important to note that the patient must receive thiamine first to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can be triggered by IV glucose.

      Overall, this patient’s condition highlights the importance of proper nutrition and medical care, particularly for those who may be homeless or struggling with addiction. By addressing his metabolic acidosis and providing him with the necessary treatment, healthcare providers can help improve his overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      155.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed