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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer: He should receive mumps immunoglobulin now
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?
Your Answer: Urinary tract injury
Explanation:Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30 year old male presented with fever and tonsillar enlargement. He has been taking amoxicillin for a significant duration of time, but the symptoms have persisted. On examination there was oozing from the tonsils. Which of the following is the most probable reason?
Your Answer: Tonsillar carcinoma
Correct Answer: Peritonsillar abscess
Explanation:Short duration of symptoms and fever are suggestive of an infection. Persisting symptoms despite the use of antibiotics and continuous oozing are suggestive of peritonsillar abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30 year male admitted following a stab injury to his left upper chest. He complained of difficulty in breathing. On examination his chest movements were unequal on the left side. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be damaged?
Your Answer: Left phrenic nerve
Explanation:Difficulty in breathing and unequal chest movements are due to paralysis of the diaphragm. So the nerve affected is the left phrenic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Seriously Ill
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old female presented with heavy vaginal bleeding for two weeks. After the initial assessment, a transvaginal U/S scan was done and found to be normal. What is the next most appropriate investigation that can be done?
Your Answer: Coagulation profile
Explanation:As the U/S scan is normal, there is no point of doing an endometrial biopsy and hysterectomy. Complete blood count is not helpful with the diagnosis. A high vaginal swab is for patients with vaginal discharges to determine the causative organism. So from the given responses, a coagulation profile is the suitable answer as this will help to diagnose any bleeding tendencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 6
Correct
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A 23 year old patient was involved in a MVA. Clinical examination reveals a fixed dilated pupil and reduced consciousness. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Explanation:The oculomotor nerve is the 3rd cranial nerve. When damaged it affects the ocular motility causing mainly ptosis or diplopia. Damage to it can also affect the pupillary functions causing pupil dilation and light reflex impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old heroin addict came with his wife. He wanted to quit heroin use and his wife was willing to help him. What is the most appropriate drug that can be started?
Your Answer: Methadone
Explanation:Methadone is a synthetic opiate primarily used in the detoxification and maintenance of patients who are dependent on opiates, particularly heroin. Methadone inhibits the ascending pain pathways and diminishes the perception of and response to pain. Benefits of methadone include good treatment retention, psychosocial adjustment, and reduced criminal activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?
Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which among these are the most prevalent organic causes of anxiety symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:The more common anxiety causes that are organic include: paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias, withdrawal from alcohol or with thyroxine, and drug intoxication. Pheochromocytoma is rare. Anxiety is not caused by carcinoid syndrome, whereas, depression is most likely caused by carcinoma of the bronchus and hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 22 year old woman is being followed up 6 weeks after a surgical procedure to evacuate the uterus following a miscarriage. The histology has shown changes consistent with a hydatidiform mole. What is the single most appropriate investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Serum B-HCG
Explanation:The most appropriate test for a hydatiform mole is serum beta hCG levels, which are consistently raised in these patients. The levels return to normal when the pregnancy is terminated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?
Your Answer: The risk is 1 in 4 (25%)
Explanation:Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 34 year old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Lymphomas are a type of cancer that arises from lymphocytes. There are two main types of lymphoma:
1. Hodgkin lymphomas, which are characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and
2. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs), which comprise all other types of lymphoma. NHLs are further classified according to the cell type, i.e., B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, and tumour grade.
Low-grade tumours originate from mature cells that have a slow growth rate and an indolent clinical course. The most common low-grade B-cell lymphoma is follicular lymphoma, while the most common low-grade T-cell lymphomas are the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas such as mycosis fungoides. High-grade tumours, on the other hand, have a rapid growth rate and an aggressive clinical course. Certain subtypes of NHL are more common in children and young adults, such as Burkitt lymphoma.
There is a variety of treatment options, depending on the type of lymphoma. Generally, treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Limited disease low-grade tumours and high-grade NHL are treated with a curative approach. Advanced, low-grade tumours are treated with a palliative approach in symptomatic patients. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents suffering from retrosternal chest pain that started 2 hours ago and radiates to the throat. Which investigation would you immediately perform?
Your Answer: Electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Troponin levels
Explanation:The patient’s age and symptoms are indicating a myocardial infarction. Although, the cause of the pain could also be related to the digestive system, a possible myocardial infarction should be excluded or, if present, managed immediately. Troponins are used to establish the diagnosis. Levels of troponin can become elevated in the blood within 3 or 4 hours after heart injury and may remain elevated for 10 to 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Correct
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A 70 year old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for the past 3 months. A chest x-ray, showed a unilateral opacity in hilum. He has no history of smoking. Choose the most probable diagnosis.
Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of bronchial carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Correct
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A 51 year old woman recently put on antihypertensives showed the following results on 2 occasions: Na+ = 132, K+ = 7.6, Urea = 11.3, and Creatinine = 112. Which of the following drugs is responsible for this result?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Ramipril is an ACE Inhibitor. Treatment with angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) has consistently been shown to reduce the risk of renal and cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in a range of patients. However, ACEI and ARB therapy increase serum potassium which increases the risk of hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is evaluated for facial pain and fever lasting four days. Symptoms began with an upper respiratory tract infection accompanied by purulent nasal discharge; he then began to have pain over the right cheek and developed a fever of 38.4°C. On examination, he has a purulent nasal discharge and tenderness over the right maxilla. CT shows right maxillary sinusitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Acute bacterial sinusitis usually occurs following an upper respiratory infection that results in obstruction of the osteomeatal complex, impaired mucociliary clearance, and overproduction of secretions. Sinusitis can be treated with antibiotics, decongestants, steroid drops or sprays, mucolytics, antihistamines, and surgery (lavage). Studies have shown that 70% of cases of community-acquired acute sinusitis in adults and children are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. Most guidance favours amoxicillin as first line treatment. There seems to be little evidence base for this, however. BMJ’s clinical evidence website found three RCTs which showed no difference between amoxicillin and placebo (in patients without bacteriological or radiological evidence of sinusitis). However, there were no RCTs examining the effects of co-trimoxazole, cephalosporins, azithromycin, and erythromycin. Second line therapies include ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav. First and second generation cephalosporins are not generally favoured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Correct
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A newly married lady was brought to the hospital with aggressive behaviour and a history of an intake of 100 paracetamol tablets, however she states that she is okay and has no symptoms. The most appropriate action to take will be?
Your Answer: Detain under Mental Health Act
Explanation:She should be detained under the mental health act because she has attempted suicide once before, so she needs to be kept under close observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 21-year-old male presents with severe right-sided chest pain. On examination, percussion was hyper-resonant and breath sounds were reduced on the right side. He has no history of any respiratory illness or trauma. What condition is this patient suffering from?
Your Answer: Simple Pneumothorax
Explanation:Pneumothorax refers to a condition in which air or gases accumulate inside the pleural space causing the lungs to collapse. Because the patient did not have a history of any previous pulmonary disease or trauma, this is a case of simple pneumothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 23 year old woman comes for the advice regarding contraceptives. Her mother passed away due to cervical cancer and she worries about cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most suitable contraceptive method for her?
Your Answer: COCP
Correct Answer: Barrier method
Explanation:Cervical cancer results from genital infection with HPV. PV infections can be transmitted via nonsexual routes, but the result from sexual contact. So the best contraceptive method in relation to prevention of cervical cancer is the barrier method. But it will not prevent cervical cancer a 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.
Your Answer: Neuropathic ulcer
Correct Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer
Explanation:Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 25 year old youth was brought to the A&E following a stab injury to the right back of the chest. On examination he was dyspnoeic, his trachea was deviated to the left side and there were engorged veins and absent breath sounds on the right side. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:History is suggestive of right sided tension pneumothorax. It can’t be a simple pneumothorax because of tracheal deviation and engorged veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Correct
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A 46 year old alcoholic, with a past history of gall stones, presented in a critical condition with complaints of severe abdominal pain which radiated backward, vomiting, dehydration and profuse sweating. He was tachycardiac and hypotensive. What will be the first investigation to be performed in this case?
Your Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:This patient is suffering from pancreatitis. Points favouring pancreatitis includes alcoholism, past history of gallstones and state of shock. Serum lipase and amylase should be performed to rule out the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.
Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome.
Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome.
Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome.
Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: History and physical examination
Explanation:The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 43 year old female had a cervical smear test. The results came back showing only normal findings. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in three years
Explanation:Screening for cervical carcinoma helps to prevent the development of the disease. According to NICE, the screening interval using liquid-based cytology (as opposed to PAP) is 3 years for women less than 50 years old and 5 years for women over 50 years old. If a smear test is conducted and it shows no endocervical cells then it should be conducted again.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old man was seen at autopsy. He had swollen legs and signs of a transudate fluid at his liver. Before passing away, he was treated for bronchitis and TB. What is the most probable cause of the transudate?
Your Answer: Cardiac failure
Explanation:The patient most probably experienced congestive hepatopathy and leg oedema due to right sided cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Correct
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The liver is the principal site for?
Your Answer: Storage of iron
Explanation:The liver mainly synthesizes proteins including albumin, globulins and coalgulative factors. Vitamin B12 is taken in via the diet and stored by the liver. Vitamin C is not stored and excessive vitamin C is excreted via urine. Liver is the main site of iron storage, where it is stored in the form of ferritin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?
Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint disease
Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy
Explanation:Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 33
Correct
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An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Health
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Question 34
Correct
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An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman complains of numbness in her right hand that improves by shaking it. The surgeon has suggested a surgical option. Ligation of which of the following structures will improve the condition?
Your Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The most likely cause is median nerve inflammation due to carpal tunnel syndrome. It is treated surgically with ablation of the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 45 year old male with asthma presented with postnasal drainage, a dull headache and snoring. On examination there were two reddish masses in both nostrils. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nasal polyp
Explanation:Nasal polyps are abnormal lesions that originate from any portion of the nasal mucosa or paranasal sinuses. They are more common among asthmatics. Symptoms include nasal airway obstruction, postnasal drainage, dull headaches, snoring, and rhinorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 37
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman was brought by family members claiming that she was having increased sexual urges. She has had several sexual encounters with unknown people and is spending a lot of money on clothes and jewellery. On examination, she was talking excessively. Family members gave a history of low mood and an attempted suicide a few months ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder
Explanation:This patient has features of mania including increased sexual activity, excessive pursuit of pleasurable activities and excessive talking. There is a history of a depressive episode as well (low mood and suicidal attempt). Therefore, this patient most likely has a bipolar affective disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Correct
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A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both solids and liquids. What would be the best management option if the barium swallow showed a dilated oesophagus which tapers to a fine distal end?
Your Answer: Dilatation of the LES
Explanation:Dysphagia for both solids and liquids indicates either obstruction or impaired oesophageal peristalsis which is usually due to neuromuscular causes such as achalasia. Achalasia is the failure of smooth muscle fibres to relax, which can cause the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed. The lower part of the oesophagus is more narrow than normal and presents as a birds beak appearance on barium swallow. If dysphagia was present only on solid food consumption, a benign or malignant tumour must be suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which is the most likely lymph node involved in the presence of an ulcer on the scrotum?
Your Answer: Aortic lymph node
Correct Answer: Inguinal lymph node
Explanation:Inguinal LN’s drain the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the lower abdominal wall, perineum, buttocks, external genitalia, and lower limbs. They are subdivided into three groups of lymph nodes (nodi lymphoid):
– inferior group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes, located inferior to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of the lower limb;
– superolateral superficial inguinal lymph nodes located lateral to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of lateral buttock and lower anterior abdominal wall; and
– superomedial superficial inguinal lymph nodes, located medial to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of the perineum and external genitalia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 40
Correct
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A 17 year old girl, known to suffer from asthma, was admitted with dyspnoea. Usually her best PEFR is 410 L/min. Which of the following would favour the diagnosis of a severe asthma attack?
Your Answer: PEFR 200 L/min
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society, the inability to complete sentences, a HR>110 bpm, a RR>25/min, a PEFR=33-50% of predicted value are all indications of acute severe asthma. Life-threatening asthma would present with hypotension, silent chest, bradycardia and hypoxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Seriously Ill
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
