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  • Question 1 - An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with 3 months of weakness in his hands, which has deteriorated to the point where he has to hold a cup of tea with two hands. On examination he has wasting and fasciculation of his hands but no sensory symptoms. His tongue appears wasted and fasciculates. He chokes on occasions when swallowing fluids.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Symptoms and Presentations

      Motor Neurone Disease, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, and Parkinson’s Disease are all neurological disorders that present with different symptoms and modes of onset.

      Motor Neurone Disease typically presents with minor symptoms in the hands and limbs, with no sensory symptoms and unaffected eyes. Upper and motor neurone signs are seen, and bulbar signs are present in 20% of patients.

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome presents acutely with symmetrical weakness that starts in the lower extremities and ascends progressively. Sensory symptoms also start in the lower extremities.

      Multiple Sclerosis can follow a relapsing remitting or progressive course, with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs. Objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of multiple sclerosis is necessary for diagnosis, as is the exclusion of other explanations for the clinical features.

      Myasthenia Gravis presents with varying degrees of weakness in muscle groups, with muscles tending to fatigue after exercise. Ptosis and diplopia are often the first symptoms.

      Parkinson’s Disease is a movement disorder characterised by tremor at rest, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      In summary, each neurological disorder has its own unique symptoms and presentations, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions...

    Incorrect

    • Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?

      Your Answer: Atopic eczema

      Correct Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms

      Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.

      In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.

      Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.

      Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing her echocardiogram, it is found that she has a reduced ejection fraction of 40% and no significant valve disease. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/90 mmHg during the visit. There is no indication of fluid overload, and her weight has remained stable. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol and furosemide.

      After reviewing her blood work, it is discovered that her potassium levels are slightly elevated at 5.3 mmol/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Increase her dose of furosemide and repeat urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks

      Correct Answer: Seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor owing to the raised potassium

      Explanation:

      Before initiating an ACE inhibitor in patients with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, it is recommended to seek specialist advice if the potassium level is above 5 mmol/L. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests starting bisoprolol and ramipril for such patients. However, if the potassium level is high, it is advisable to repeat the urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks and seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor. As the patient is asymptomatic, increasing the dose of furosemide would not be beneficial. There is no need for same-day medical assessment as the patient is currently stable. Although bendroflumethiazide may be suitable for hypertension, NICE CKS recommends ACEi for heart failure treatment.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      97.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman with a limp presents to you with heel pain that...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with a limp presents to you with heel pain that started after she hurried to catch a bus five days ago. You suspect a ruptured Achilles tendon. She has a medical history of temporal arteritis and is currently taking prednisolone 10 mg per day. Additionally, she is on an antibiotic prescribed during her last hospital visit, but she cannot recall the name of the medication nor does she have it with her. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Quinolones and Achilles Tendon Damage

      Achilles tendon damage is a well-known side effect of quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin. This risk is particularly high in individuals over the age of 60, heart, lung, or kidney transplant recipients, and patients taking corticosteroids. Patients with a history of tendon disorders related to quinolone use should not take these antibiotics. If tendonitis is suspected, the use of quinolones should be discontinued immediately. It is important to note that other antibiotics do not cause tendon damage and are safe to use. By being aware of the risks associated with quinolones, healthcare providers can make informed decisions when prescribing antibiotics to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels

      Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer: Switching from coffee to tea drinking

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?...

    Incorrect

    • What measure can be taken to avoid the spread of the common cold?

      Your Answer: Frequent hand washing

      Correct Answer: Vaccination

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Viral Infections

      There are several approaches to treating and preventing viral infections, but not all of them are effective. Antivirals, for example, have no evidence of efficacy. Antibiotics are also not appropriate for uncomplicated cases. However, frequent hand washing can reduce contamination from surfaces. Health food products like ginseng have no evidence of efficacy either. Topical interferon alpha can prevent symptoms if given before disease onset, but it cannot be used for long-term prophylaxis due to side effects and cost implications. Vaccination is not an option due to the numerous types of viruses. The role of vitamin C remains controversial, but some evidence suggests it may help during times of severe stress. The current consensus is that it doesn’t. By understanding the limitations and benefits of these approaches, individuals can take steps to protect themselves from viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoarthritis, and COPD. During the examination, he shows good range of motion in the shoulder but experiences pain on the lateral aspect of the shoulder that radiates down to the upper arm and forearm. Additionally, he has some muscle wasting in his hand and a left-sided ptosis and miosis. What is the most suitable investigation to request next?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Shoulder Pain in a Patient with COPD

      This patient with COPD, likely due to significant cigarette smoking, presents with shoulder pain, small muscle wasting in the hand, and Horner’s syndrome. These symptoms suggest a lesion affecting the cervical sympathetic plexus, which could be caused by an apical lung tumor invading the area. Therefore, an urgent chest x-ray should be requested to confirm the diagnosis of Pancoast’s syndrome.

      In addition to Horner’s syndrome, the clinician should also be alert to the presence of a hoarse voice and bovine cough, which may indicate invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and vocal cord paralysis. While brainstem disease can also cause Horner’s syndrome, CT or MRI scanning of the head would only be useful in such instances.

      A plain film of the shoulder may reveal adjacent lung apex and reveal a tumor, but it is not designed to pick up chest pathology. Therefore, a chest x-ray is necessary based on the overall clinical picture. Syringomyelia can also cause Horner’s syndrome and wasting and weakness of the hands and arms, along with loss of pain and temperature sensation over the trunk and arms. An MRI scan can confirm this diagnosis. Nerve conduction studies have no role in this instance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the receptionists. Who is accountable for arranging a different primary healthcare provider?

      Your Answer: The current practice

      Correct Answer: The local clinical commissioning group

      Explanation:

      The responsibility of arranging alternative care falls on the local clinical commissioning group. To cater to aggressive or violent patients, several clinical commissioning groups may arrange primary care services that are tailored to their needs.

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history of right shoulder pain.
      He has recently been doing some home renovations and wonders if this has caused the problem as he has been quite busy with manual labor. He localizes the pain to the tip of the shoulder and says it radiates to the outer aspect of his upper arm. He reports that the pain is worse when he has to lift his arm above shoulder level and has noticed pain with brushing his teeth and putting on his shirt.
      On examination the joint is cool and stable. He is systemically well. You are able to demonstrate a painful arc. There is normal power with no neurovascular deficit in the arm.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging to perform at this stage?

      Your Answer: Plain x ray

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Shoulder Injuries

      When a patient presents with rotator cuff tendinitis, a clinical diagnosis is the most appropriate approach. Imaging is not necessary at this point unless there are atypical symptoms or the initial management strategies are ineffective. However, if further imaging is needed, there are several modalities available for assessing shoulder injuries.

      Ultrasound (US) is the preferred investigation for assessing the rotator cuff and surrounding soft tissues. It can also guide injections and is reserved for cases that do not respond to first-line treatment and clinically guided injection. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is an alternative to US and is useful for assessing complex injuries and bony abnormalities after major trauma. It can also exclude rare conditions that are obscured by acromial arch and bone abnormalities when other investigations and treatments fail to establish a diagnosis.

      X-ray is used as a preoperative assessment and is indicated for persistent shoulder pain that is unresponsive to conservative management. It can exclude calcific tendinitis and diagnose conditions unrelated to the rotator cuff. However, it is important to evaluate the benefits of imaging to limit unnecessary requests that waste resources and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 49-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo. She reports experiencing true...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo. She reports experiencing true vertigo for about 10-20 seconds at a time, which has been happening on and off for the past few days. She became frightened while driving yesterday when she turned her head and became very dizzy, causing her to stop the car. She has since stopped driving altogether, but the vertigo continues to occur throughout the day in other situations, particularly when she turns her head. She denies any hearing loss or tinnitus. On examination, her cranial nerves are normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive when she is manoeuvred to the right side, producing rotatory vertigo and nystagmus. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Perform the Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      This patient is exhibiting classic signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). The Epley manoeuvre is a highly effective treatment option that can be taught to the patient to reduce or eliminate their symptoms. Vestibular sedatives are not recommended for the management of BPPV.

      If the patient were experiencing unilateral deafness or tinnitus, an MRI would be necessary. However, at this stage, there is no indication for audiological or outpatient ENT assessment. It is important to note that early intervention and proper management can greatly improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.

      ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.

      It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What food has the highest glycaemic index rating among the options provided? ...

    Incorrect

    • What food has the highest glycaemic index rating among the options provided?

      Your Answer: Mashed potato

      Correct Answer: Chick peas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Diets: The Glycaemic Index

      Feedback from previous MRCGP examinations has highlighted a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. One important factor to consider is the glycaemic index (GI), which refers to the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed. Foods with a low GI, such as oranges, natural muesli, chickpeas, and sweetcorn, are recommended for people with diabetes. Combining carbohydrates with fat can also lower the GI, as seen in chocolate, which has a medium GI.

      Contrary to popular belief, people with diabetes can consume any type of fruit, regardless of its sugar content. However, it is recommended that no more than one glass of fruit juice is consumed per day. Spreading fruit intake throughout the day can help prevent sudden spikes in blood glucose levels. It is important to note that while low GI foods may help regulate glucose levels, they may not necessarily be healthy in other ways. Understanding the glycaemic index is an important aspect of managing a diabetic diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?

      Your Answer: A vaccination program has been introduced for girls aged 12-13 years

      Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts

      Explanation:

      Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a...

    Incorrect

    • What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a woman is not pregnant when she wants to start contraception and has no pregnancy symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer: A pregnancy test is performed 2 weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and is negative

      Correct Answer: Is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and 4 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Determining Pregnancy Status in Starting Contraception

      Health professionals can determine with reasonable certainty whether a woman is pregnant or not before starting contraception. This is important to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen contraceptive method. According to CKS NICE, the following criteria can be used to determine pregnancy status:

      – The woman has not had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
      – The woman has used a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days of the onset of a normal menstrual period.
      – The woman is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-breastfeeding women.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days post-termination of pregnancy or miscarriage.
      – The woman is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum.
      – A pregnancy test is performed no sooner than 3 weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and is negative.

      By following these criteria, health professionals can ensure that women are not inadvertently exposed to the risks of contraceptive methods during pregnancy. It is important to note that if there is any doubt about pregnancy status, a pregnancy test should be performed before starting contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation....

    Correct

    • A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation. She is of Pakistani origin and has no notable medical history. She reports taking iron supplements regularly since her midwife diagnosed her with anemia, but her blood count has not improved. Her recent lab results reveal an Hb of 96 g/L, MCV of 67.4 fL, and normal serum iron and ferritin levels. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinopathy

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemia Minor: A Mild Anaemia with Low MCV

      This lady is experiencing a mild, well-tolerated anaemia with a very low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Despite having normal iron and ferritin levels, her Pakistani background suggests a possible haemoglobinopathy, specifically thalassaemia minor. This condition is characterized by an MCV less than 75 fL and may worsen during pregnancy.

      To confirm the diagnosis, a haemoglobin electrophoresis test can be performed, which will reveal an increased HbA2. Other potential causes of anaemia, such as anaemia of chronic disease, hypothyroidism, occult gastrointestinal blood loss, and osteomalacia, have been ruled out based on the patient’s history and test results.

      In summary, thalassaemia minor is a mild form of anaemia that can be easily diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. While it may not require treatment, it is important to monitor the condition, especially during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer

      Laryngeal Carcinoma:
      The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.

      Breast Cancer:
      Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.

      Colonic Carcinoma:
      Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.

      Gastric Carcinoma:
      Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.

      Lung Cancer:
      Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.

      Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately 60 minutes every five to six days.

      Careful questioning reveals no clear precipitating factors, and he is otherwise an infrequent attender to the surgery. On examination, his BP is 140/80 mmHg, his pulse irregular at 100 bpm, but otherwise cardiovascular and respiratory examination is unremarkable.

      You arrange for an ECG the following day with the practice nurse, which is normal.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 24 hour ambulatory ECG monitor

      Correct Answer: Arrange an event recorder ECG

      Explanation:

      Recommended Investigation for Diagnosis of Heart Condition

      The recommended investigation for confirming the diagnosis of the heart condition in this scenario is an event recorder electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because symptomatic episodes are more than 24 hours apart, making a 24-hour ambulatory ECG less likely to confirm the diagnosis. While echocardiography may be useful in evaluating atrial fibrillation, a diagnosis must first be made.

      It is important to note that there is no indication of haemodynamic compromise in this scenario, so acute admission is not necessary. By conducting the appropriate investigation, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care

      When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.

      In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.

      It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are conducting a HGV medical examination on a 65-year-old truck driver. He...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a HGV medical examination on a 65-year-old truck driver. He reports a decline in his vision but doesn't use corrective lenses. What is the method used to verify if he should be cautioned against driving according to DVLA standards?

      Your Answer: Their visual acuity according to a Snellen chart is 6/7.5 in the best eye and 6/60 in the other eye

      Explanation:

      DVLA Fitness to Drive Standards: Vision Requirements

      According to the DVLA Fitness to Drive Standards, there are specific requirements for vision when driving. These include being able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from 20 meters away, having a visual acuity of at least decimal 0.5 (6/12) measured on the Snellen scale, and having an adequate field of vision. Lorry and bus drivers have additional requirements, including a visual acuity of at least 0.8 (6/7.5) in their best eye and an uninterrupted horizontal visual field of at least 160 degrees. It is important to note that if you have any problems with your eyesight that affect either eye, you must inform the DVLA. While there are some exceptions for those who held their license before 1 January 1997, it is crucial to meet these standards to ensure safe driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of thirst and polyuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of thirst and polyuria of recent onset. He is a software engineer with an irregular daily routine.
      On examination, his body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2 and he is not aware of any weight loss. A random blood sugar is 15.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.9–7.1 mmol/l). He has glycosuria but no ketonuria.
      A diagnosis of type I diabetes is suspected. He is referred to the diabetes specialist team for immediate review that day.
      What is the most likely treatment option this patient will be discharged on?

      Your Answer: A basal insulin regimen

      Correct Answer: A basal-bolus insulin regimen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Insulin Regimens for Type I Diabetes

      When a patient is diagnosed with type I diabetes, it is crucial to refer them to a diabetes specialist team for immediate care. One of the recommended treatment regimens is the basal-bolus insulin regimen, which involves taking a longer-acting insulin to stabilize blood glucose levels during fasting periods (basal regimen) and separate injections of shorter-acting insulin to prevent post-meal blood sugar spikes (bolus regimen). This is the preferred treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      A bolus insulin regimen involves monitoring blood sugar levels multiple times a day and administering insulin in response to rises in blood sugar. However, this is not recommended for newly diagnosed type I diabetes. A basal insulin regimen involves taking a long-acting basal insulin injection at regular intervals, but with no additional insulin to compensate for postprandial blood sugar spikes. This may be appropriate for severe insulin resistance in poorly managed type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes.

      Oral hypoglycemic agents are used in the management of type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes, which requires insulin. A twice-daily mixed insulin regimen may be suitable for those with a regular daily routine that includes three main meals at similar times each day. However, NICE guidance recommends against non-basal-bolus insulin regimens for adults with newly diagnosed type I diabetes. This patient, a student with an irregular daily routine, would not be suitable for a twice-daily mixed insulin regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and...

    Incorrect

    • What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and fractures?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism on appropriate thyroid replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Undiagnosed coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and Fracture Risk Factors

      Undiagnosed or untreated coeliac disease can lead to malabsorption and increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. On the other hand, skimmed milk contains more calcium per pint than full fat milk, and bendroflumethiazide can improve calcium retention and bone mineral density. It is important to note that irritable bowel syndrome doesn’t cause malabsorption or increased fracture risk, unlike coeliac disease or inflammatory bowel diseases. Lastly, hyperthyroidism can increase the risk of osteoporosis, but hypothyroidism doesn’t unless it is over-replaced. By understanding these risk factors, individuals can take steps to prevent osteoporosis and fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
    Select from the list...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.

      Your Answer: Absence of cardiac symptoms

      Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children

      Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion

      Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult

      Explanation:

      Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Samantha is a 50-year-old factory worker whose hearing has been gradually declining over...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 50-year-old factory worker whose hearing has been gradually declining over the past 4 years. She has been exposed to loud noises in her workplace for many years.

      Samantha finally decided to visit her doctor 3 months ago, as she was hesitant to seek help, and her hearing has now severely deteriorated. After undergoing audiology testing, she was diagnosed with bilateral sensorineural hearing loss.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Trial of hearing aids

      Explanation:

      Before considering a cochlear implant, both children and adults must undergo an assessment by a multidisciplinary team. As part of this assessment, they should have tried using an acoustic hearing aid for at least three months. Cochlear implantation is recommended for individuals with severe to profound deafness who do not receive sufficient benefit from hearing aids.

      Mark should try to avoid noisy environments, including his current workplace, to prevent further damage to his hearing. However, it is not advisable for him to immediately stop working. Instead, he should discuss his situation with his occupational health team to explore options for working in a quieter environment.

      While education on sign language and lip reading may be helpful, it is important to note that adults who become deaf are unlikely to become proficient in sign language.

      It is incorrect to tell Mark that nothing more can be done. He may be eligible for a trial of hearing aids and referral for a cochlear implant if necessary.

      A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.

      Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.

      The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.

      Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing

      Explanation:

      The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.

      Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.

      Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Give intramuscular dextrose

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek...

    Incorrect

    • A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek genetic counselling. There is no history of the disease in his family tree.
      What is the most likely risk of disease transmission to his children?

      Your Answer: All the children will be carriers

      Correct Answer: There is a 50% chance of a child being affected

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant disorder, which means that an affected person inherits one copy of the gene with an expanded trinucleotide repeat from their parent with the condition. This also means that each child of an affected person has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene and developing the disease. However, if the mother’s family has no history of the disease, the risk of children being affected is lower. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease to make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia

      Correct Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      20.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/5) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/3) 33%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Population Health (0/2) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (3/3) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Passmed