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  • Question 1 - You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: Preventing implantation and altering cervical mucous

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.

      Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives

      Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).

      Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.

      Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.

      Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 420 ms. He takes oral quetiapine regularly. He was started on a course of clarithromycin for a recently suspected tonsillitis and has now recovered. He reported no new symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: No intervention required

      Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice

      Explanation:

      Normal QTc Interval in Patient Taking Quetiapine and Clarithromycin

      The normal values for QTc are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking medications such as quetiapine and clarithromycin, which are known to increase the QTc interval. In this scenario, an ECG was performed and the QTc interval was found to be normal. Therefore, no intervention is necessary at this time. It is important to continue monitoring the patient's QTc interval throughout their treatment with these medications. Proper monitoring can help prevent potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).

      What is the most common causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.

      Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.

      To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.

      In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago...

    Correct

    • Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago with vertigo following a viral infection. You diagnosed vestibular neuronitis and prescribed a course of prochlorperazine for symptom control.

      Olivia comes to see you today with ongoing vertigo. This improved with prochlorperazine but she still experiences attacks of vertigo which usually last hours. There are no new symptoms and neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most important aspect of ongoing management for Olivia?

      Your Answer: Refer for vestibular rehabilitation exercises

      Explanation:

      Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis, as they are both safe and effective in improving functioning in the medium term. It is important to avoid prolonged use of medication, as it may interfere with the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery. While a short course of promethazine may help with symptom control, it is unlikely to provide long-term relief for vertigo. Betahistine is only indicated for vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease, and is therefore not appropriate for Marcus’s case. Hospital admission is not necessary, as Marcus is not acutely unwell and his symptoms are likely to resolve within a few weeks. However, it is important to refer chronic or recurrent cases for further evaluation to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the definition of the standardised mortality ratio, and how does it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the standardised mortality ratio, and how does it differ from the age-standardised mortality ratio?

      Your Answer: The ratio of deaths in a sample population compared to the deaths in a reference population

      Correct Answer: The ratio of observed to expected mortality accounting for confounding factors

      Explanation:

      The mortality ratio, which only considers the observed over expected mortality, doesn’t factor in variables such as age and gender that may affect the results.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Referral to GUM clinic

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
      Select the single correct statement regarding this process.

      Your Answer: Aneurysms greater than 5 cm diameter will be referred for elective repair

      Correct Answer: Screening all men at 65 is estimated to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50%

      Explanation:

      National Screening Programme for Aortic Aneurysm in Men at 65

      The National Screening Programme aims to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50% by screening all men in their 65th year. The prevalence of significant aneurysm in this age group is 4%. Screening will be done through ultrasound, and those without significant aneurysms will be discharged. For those with aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter, surgery will be offered to 0.5% of men. Those with small aneurysms will enter a follow-up programme. However, the mortality from elective surgery is 5-7%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which of the following options? Please select only one.

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Hip fracture

      Explanation:

      Predisposing Factors for Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism is a serious medical condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing pulmonary embolism.

      Strong predisposing factors, with an odds ratio greater than 10, include fractures (hip or leg), hip or knee replacement, major general surgery, major trauma, and spinal cord injury.

      Moderate predisposing factors, with an odds ratio between 2 and 9, include arthroscopic knee surgery, central venous lines, chemotherapy, chronic heart or respiratory failure, hormone replacement therapy, malignancy, oral contraceptive therapy, paralytic stroke, pregnancy/postpartum, previous venous thromboembolism, and thrombophilia.

      Weak predisposing factors, with an odds ratio of 2 or less, include bed rest for more than 3 days, immobility due to sitting (such as prolonged car or air travel), increasing age, laparoscopic surgery (such as cholecystectomy), obesity, pregnancy/antepartum, and varicose veins.

      It is important to be aware of these predisposing factors and take appropriate measures to prevent pulmonary embolism, especially in high-risk individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      85.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for...

    Correct

    • A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for recovery from a certain illness.

      What term best describes the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one that was observed, assuming that the null hypothesis of no difference between the medication and placebo is true?

      Your Answer: P value

      Explanation:

      The P value represents the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is as extreme or more extreme than the one observed, assuming that the null hypothesis is true.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your...

    Incorrect

    • You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your slides. The presentation will be for students in your class and you also plan to share it with students in another class via video-conference.
      Under what circumstances is it necessary to obtain patient consent before displaying images related to patients?

      Your Answer: Images of rare skin lesions

      Correct Answer: CT images

      Explanation:

      Patient Consent for Showing Images of Rare Skin Lesions

      It is important to obtain patient consent before displaying images of rare skin lesions. The General Medical Council (GMC) recommends seeking consent in such cases. However, in other circumstances, consent may not be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A mother whose 12-year-old son had a history of glue ear when younger...

    Incorrect

    • A mother whose 12-year-old son had a history of glue ear when younger requests a copy of his medical records from the practice manager. Which of the following statements regarding access to medical records is not accurate?

      Your Answer: Parents may request access to their children's records

      Correct Answer: A fee can be charged for a print out of her medical records

      Explanation:

      Under the General Data Protection Regulations and the Data Protection Act 2018, it is no longer permissible to charge a fee for obtaining a basic copy of medical records.

      Accessing Medical Records: Patients’ Rights and Key Principles

      Accessing medical records is a fundamental right of patients, which is protected by the 1998 Data Protection Act and the 1990 Access to Health Records Act. The key principles governing this right include the patient’s right to view their medical records, the right of competent children to access their records, and the right of parents to request access to their children’s records if they are under 16 years old.

      Doctors have a responsibility to ensure that they do not release information that may harm a patient’s emotional or physical health. Additionally, under the Data Protection Act, access to medical records should be granted within 28 days. It is important to note that following the General Data Protection Regulations and the Data Protection Act 2018, a fee cannot be charged for a simple copy of medical notes.

      In summary, patients have the right to access their medical records, and doctors have a responsibility to ensure that this access is granted in a timely and appropriate manner. The key principles outlined above provide a framework for ensuring that patients’ rights are respected and protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      1. Having First Child at a Young Age

      Decreases Risk: Having the first child at a young age is actually associated with a lower risk of breast cancer. Women who have their first child before age 30, especially before age 20, tend to have a reduced risk compared to those who have children later in life or not at all.

      Explanation: Early pregnancy reduces the total number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, reducing exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which are associated with breast cancer development.

      2. Early Menopause

      Decreases Risk: Experiencing menopause at an earlier age is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Early menopause means fewer menstrual cycles and reduced lifetime exposure to estrogen, which is linked to the development of breast cancer.

      3. Multiparity (Having Multiple Pregnancies)

      Decreases Risk: Having multiple pregnancies generally reduces the risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Similar to having a first child at a young age, multiple pregnancies lower the total number of menstrual cycles and thereby reduce lifetime hormone exposure, decreasing breast cancer risk.

      4. A Mother Who Has Breast-Fed Her Baby

      Decreases Risk: Breastfeeding is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Breastfeeding reduces the number of menstrual cycles, which reduces hormone exposure. Additionally, lactation may lead to changes in breast cells that make them more resistant to cancer.

      5. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

      Increases Risk: Hormone replacement therapy, particularly combined estrogen-progesterone therapy, is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: HRT increases the exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which can promote the development and growth of hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells. The risk is higher with longer duration of use and decreases after stopping the therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor of the hands. There are no other neurological abnormalities.
      Select the most appropriate initial treatment.

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Essential Tremor: A Common Movement Disorder

      Essential tremor is the most prevalent movement disorder, characterized by a postural tremor that can occur between the ages of 20 and 60. It is a slowly progressive condition that can last for years. The exact cause of essential tremor is unknown, but it can be inherited or occur sporadically. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4-11 Hz, depending on the affected body segment. Essential tremor most commonly affects the hands, but it can also affect the head, voice, tongue, and legs. In severe cases, the tremor may occur at rest. Interestingly, small amounts of alcohol can alleviate the tremor, which is not the case for Parkinson’s disease. The most commonly used drugs for essential tremor are propranolol and primidone, but other medications such as alprazolam, atenolol, gabapentin, and topiramate may also be effective. Understanding essential tremor is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain at night. He reports that the pain has been present for a few months and has recently worsened over the past two weeks. He denies any other symptoms and states that he generally feels well. He has no history of limb weakness, walking difficulties, pins and needles, or bladder and bowel problems. Additionally, he has never had any previous back injuries.
      The patient's medical history includes childhood asthma, mild osteoarthritis of the fingers and knees, and prostate cancer three years ago.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the thoracic spine area, and he experiences discomfort on flexion. Straight leg raising is normal, and there are no neurological abnormalities in the limbs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Request a chest x ray

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to oncology

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression: A Medical Emergency

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a medical emergency that should be considered in all cancer patients with back pain. Back pain is the most common sign, occurring in 90% of cases and may pre-date neurological changes by a considerable length of time. However, once neurological symptoms and signs are present, such as leg weakness, increased reflexes, a sensory ‘level’ and sphincter disturbance, the prognosis for recovery with treatment (surgery or radiotherapy) is much poorer.

      NICE guidelines on metastatic spinal cord compression (CG75) advise contacting the MSCC coordinator urgently (within 24 hours) to discuss the care of patients with cancer and any symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases. These symptoms include pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe unremitting lower spinal pain, spinal pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain preventing sleep.

      It is worth noting that 77% of people diagnosed with MSCC have an established diagnosis of cancer, where 23% present with MSCC as the first presentation of malignancy. This medical emergency can occur in any area of the spine, and prompt recognition and treatment are essential for the best possible outcome. Therefore, it is crucial to contact the MSCC coordinator immediately to discuss the care of patients with cancer and symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases who have any neurological symptoms or signs suggestive of MSCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to miss school for the past two months. What factor suggests an organic cause rather than a functional one?

      Your Answer: Pain interferes with normal activities

      Correct Answer: Frequent diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common issue among children that can disrupt their daily activities. It is often not accompanied by any organic pathology and tends to occur frequently, with at least three episodes in three months. The pain is usually located in the central abdomen and can be severe enough to affect the child’s activities.

      While there are many possible organic causes for recurrent abdominal pain, diagnostic investigations are only recommended for children with alarm symptoms or signs. These include involuntary weight loss, slowing of linear growth, gastrointestinal blood loss, significant vomiting, chronic severe diarrhea or constipation, unexplained fever, pain localized away from the central abdomen, or a family history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      It is important to note that persistent right-upper or right-lower-quadrant pain should raise more concern. Headache is more likely to occur in children with non-organic recurrent abdominal pain, and pain relieved by defecation is usually a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and doesn’t match the features in this scenario.

      Recurrent abdominal pain can lead to increased functional impairment in everyday life, such as school absences. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the distinction between organic disease, functional disorders, and emotional factors to provide appropriate care for children experiencing this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization?

      Your Answer: At two months

      Correct Answer: At one year

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunisation for Infants and Pregnant Women

      Young infants are most vulnerable to serious complications from pertussis, which is why children receive multiple doses of the vaccine starting at two months of age. The vaccine is given as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine and again before starting school. However, pregnant women are now also being immunised against pertussis in the later stages of pregnancy. This is to enable them to transfer a high level of antibodies across the placenta to their unborn child, providing protection against pertussis until the first dose of immunisation. By vaccinating pregnant women, we can help protect the most vulnerable members of our population from this potentially deadly disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from the given list?

      Your Answer: A 72-year-old woman who has noticed that “overnight” she can no longer do the Times crossword and has progressively shown evidence of cognitive deterioration.

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old girl complaining of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Neurological Symptoms

      When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient with migraine, the symptoms may include headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, if the symptoms are more severe or progressive, other conditions may need to be considered.

      One possible diagnosis is a brain tumour, which can cause symptoms of a space-occupying lesion and raised intracranial pressure. Another potential concern is central nervous system cancer, which should be assessed with an MRI or CT scan within two weeks of onset.

      Elderly patients with a first seizure may have underlying factors such as cerebrovascular disease, dementia, or tumours. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg twice daily and had been taking oral contraceptives for three years.

      She presented to her general practitioner 12 weeks pregnant.

      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of a neural tube defect in her fetus

      Correct Answer: She is at increased risk of anaemia in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants and Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, taking Anticonvulsants can increase the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is important to note that the benefits of preventing seizures outweigh the risks associated with treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the drug be continued during pregnancy. To minimize the risks, it is advised to take folate supplements. It is also important to note that sodium valproate is not an enzyme inducer and will not speed up the metabolism of the pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      1316.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?...

    Incorrect

    • For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Disease in Trisomy 21

      Congenital heart disease is a common condition among individuals born with Trisomy 21. Approximately 50% of people with this genetic disorder have some form of heart defect. The most frequent defects are atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect.

      Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common type of heart defect in Trisomy 21, followed by ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus. Tetralogy of Fallot and atrial septal defect are less common but still occur in a significant number of cases. It is important for individuals with Trisomy 21 to receive regular cardiac evaluations and monitoring to ensure early detection and treatment of any heart defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are evaluating a 54-year-old male patient who you initiated on 2.5mg of...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 54-year-old male patient who you initiated on 2.5mg of ramipril two weeks ago for stage 2 hypertension. He has a history of mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) diagnosed two years ago. He is not taking any other medications and has no significant past medical history. On a previous assessment, you noted some pulmonary oedema, and an echo revealed normal left-ventricular function. A urine dip was unremarkable. He remains hypertensive today, but apart from shortness of breath on exertion, he is asymptomatic. There is no notable family history.

      Two weeks ago, his blood tests showed an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 67 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his blood results were:

      - Na+ 139 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 110 µmol/l

      This week, his blood tests show an eGFR of 65 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his renal function showed:

      - Na+ 141 mmol/l
      - K+ 5.0 mmol/l
      - Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/l

      What is the likely underlying diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences an increase in serum creatinine after starting an ACE-inhibitor like ramipril, it may indicate renal artery stenosis. Other signs of this condition include refractory hypertension and recurrent pulmonary edema with normal left ventricular function. A normal urine dip makes options 1, 2, and 3 unlikely, and there are no symptoms of cancer, infection, or diabetes. While polycystic kidney disease is a possibility, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and typically presents with hypertension, kidney stones, haematuria, or an abdominal mass. However, given the patient’s history and lack of family history of renal disease, renal artery stenosis is the more likely diagnosis.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving...

    Correct

    • A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers' Care report, to provide details about the demise of a postpartum patient who was under the care of the practice. What type of procedure does the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers Care report exemplify?

      Your Answer: Confidential enquiry

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes public health education, which involves promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to have an understanding of the surveillance systems they are involved in. The Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report is an example of a Confidential Enquiry, which replaces the previous Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH), also known as Why Mothers Die. The purpose of a Confidential Enquiry is to investigate morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The details of each individual case are kept confidential and not published. GPs are often involved in providing information about maternal deaths to the team responsible for producing the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report. Expert reviewers gather and assess information from various healthcare professionals involved in the patient’s care, including GPs.

      Understanding Confidential Enquiries

      A confidential enquiry is a process of investigating morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The purpose of this investigation is to ensure that healthcare providers are delivering the best possible care to their patients. The confidentiality of each case is maintained, and no details are published to protect the privacy of the individuals involved.

      During a confidential enquiry, healthcare providers review cases of morbidity and mortality to identify any shortcomings in their practice. This process helps to identify areas where improvements can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is essential to encourage healthcare providers to participate in the process without fear of retribution or legal action.

      In conclusion, confidential enquiries are an essential tool for improving healthcare practices. By identifying areas of improvement, healthcare providers can work to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is critical to ensure that healthcare providers feel comfortable participating in the process and that the privacy of the individuals involved is protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      14.9
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  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
      What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders

      Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.6
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  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP for her first cervical smear. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP for her first cervical smear. The GP offers a chaperone, but she declines. During the examination of the introitus, the GP observes a painless lump of 1 cm diameter in the labium. The Bartholin's gland on the right-hand side is not palpable. The woman reports that she has never noticed anything unusual before.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Incision and drainage

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If Bartholin’s cysts are asymptomatic, there is no need for any intervention. However, if they cause symptoms or affect the appearance, they can be treated by incision and drainage. In women over 40, a biopsy may be recommended by some gynaecologists to rule out carcinoma.

      If the cyst becomes infected and turns into an abscess, the initial treatment would be marsupialisation. Alternatively, a word catheter can be inserted. Antibiotics are not effective in managing a cyst that is not accompanied by an abscess.

      Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.

      Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.

      Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.

      References:
      1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
      2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
      3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      41.5
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  • Question 25 - A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
      Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
      Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: ESR blood test

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Explanation:

      Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.

      According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      88
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  • Question 26 - As the duty doctor, you are presented with a 3-year-old girl and her...

    Incorrect

    • As the duty doctor, you are presented with a 3-year-old girl and her mother in an emergency appointment. The child has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past 4 days, and her mother is growing increasingly concerned as her symptoms do not seem to be improving. The child is now very pale and vomits every time she eats or drinks anything. She is having watery stools 6-8 times a day, and her nappies are only about 50% of normal. She has not had a fever or any rashes, and she is typically healthy and developing normally.

      Upon examination, the child appears tired and pale, sitting on her mother's lap without smiling. She looks ill. Her heart rate is 120 bpm, and her capillary refill time is 2-3 seconds. She has dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgor. Her temperature is 37.1ºC, and her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute. Her abdomen is soft and doesn't appear tender.

      You suspect that the child has viral gastroenteritis, but you are concerned that she is dehydrated and may require admission for rehydration. Before calling the paediatric team at your local hospital, you compare the child's observations to the NICE traffic light system for feverish children.

      Which observation is scoring red (high risk)?

      Your Answer: Reduced urine output

      Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in a child. This patient is displaying several symptoms of dehydration, including diarrhoea and vomiting for four days. He has three amber symptoms, including pallor reported by parent/carer, decreased urine output, and dry mucous membranes. Additionally, he has two red symptoms, including appearing ill to a healthcare professional and reduced skin turgor. Although his heart rate and respiratory rate are within normal ranges for his age, he requires admission to the hospital for rehydration and care under the paediatric team.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30
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  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for the last four to six weeks. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.

      The pain doesn't radiate from the left loin and it is not mechanical in nature. It is constant and has started to disturb his sleep at night. He reports that he is opening his bowels normally and denies any lower urinary tract symptoms. Systems review reveals he has lost just over half a stone in weight over the last two months. He tells you he also feels more tired over the last few months.

      On examination there is no tenderness on palpation of the lower back at the site of pain. The overlying skin is normal and no masses are felt. Truncal movements and walking do not exacerbate the pain. Abdominal examination is normal. There are no groin abnormalities palpated. A left sided varicocoele is noted. His blood pressure is elevated at 178/98 mmHg.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care to aid in establishing a diagnosis for this 49-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Digital rectal examination

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood testing

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Renal Carcinoma

      This patient is displaying signs and symptoms that suggest a possible renal carcinoma. The presence of non-mechanical back pain, weight loss, tiredness, hypertension, and left sided varicocoele should alert the clinician to consider a renal cause. It is important to rule out musculoskeletal causes for the back pain and to check for the presence of blood in the urine through a dipstick test.

      Renal tumours are often picked up by ultrasound, with haematuria and PUO being more common presentations than pain. It is worth noting that renal and retroperitoneal tumours may cause obstruction of the left testicular vein, leading to a left-sided varicocoele. Therefore, if a varicocoele is found on testicular imaging, the kidneys should also be scanned for any masses. Overall, it is crucial to consider a renal aetiology when presented with these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      64.3
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
      Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode

      A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.

      Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.

      In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      22.7
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.3
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  • Question 30 - As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women....

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women. When prescribing certain drugs, it is necessary to determine a woman's risk of pregnancy. What criteria can be used to reasonably determine that a woman is not currently pregnant if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and she is within the first 7 days of a natural menstrual period, less than 4 weeks postpartum (non-breastfeeding), fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum, within the first 7 days after an abortion, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy or uterine evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease, has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml), or has been correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception?

      Your Answer: She is within the first 7 days of the onset of a normal (natural) menstrual period

      Correct Answer: She is fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.

      In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      83.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/3) 0%
Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/4) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed