00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following does not align with a diagnosis of frontotemporal lobar...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not align with a diagnosis of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?

      Your Answer: Pronounced parietal lobe atrophy

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration results in the specific shrinking of the frontal and temporal lobes.

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the primary mechanism of action for buspirone, an agent used to...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mechanism of action for buspirone, an agent used to treat anxiety?

      Your Answer: 5HT1a partial agonism

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for the 5HT1a receptor, and its chemical structure is distinct from that of benzodiazepines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of phenytoin involves the stabilization of sodium channels.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are interviewing a 70-year-old patient in your ward.
    When asked what he...

    Correct

    • You are interviewing a 70-year-old patient in your ward.
      When asked what he had for breakfast, he says toast. You then ask what is your name? and he says toast. When you asked what is your date of birth?, he continues to say toast.
      What is the most likely symptom exhibited here?

      Your Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      Common Motor Symptoms in Neurological Disorders

      Perseveration is a symptom where an individual continues to use the same words of concepts even when they are no longer relevant. This is often seen in individuals with impaired consciousness due to acute of chronic organic disorders such as dementia. Automatism, on the other hand, is when an individual exhibits exaggerated cooperation with the examiner’s request of continues to perform a movement even after it has been requested. Mannerisms are repetitive, goal-directed movements, while stereotypy refers to unusual, non-goal directed movements. Finally, stuttering is characterized by the repetition of prolongation of sounds during speech. These motor symptoms are commonly seen in various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder.

      Under which axis of the DSM IV does this fall?

      Your Answer: Axis II

      Explanation:

      The DSM-IV-TR uses a multi-axial system to diagnose mental disorders. Axis II covers developmental and personality disorders, such as autism and borderline personality disorder. Axis I covers clinical syndromes, like depression and schizophrenia. Axis III includes physical conditions that may contribute to mental illness, such as brain injury of HIV/AIDS. Axis IV rates the severity of psychosocial stressors, such as job loss of marriage, that may impact the person’s mental health. Finally, Axis V rates the person’s level of functioning, both currently and in the past year, to help the clinician understand how the other axes are affecting the person and what changes may be expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the extrapyramidal side-effect that is identified by a feeling of restlessness?...

    Correct

    • What is the extrapyramidal side-effect that is identified by a feeling of restlessness?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is...

    Correct

    • Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is associated with an elevated risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein

      Explanation:

      The increased likelihood of Alzheimer’s disease in individuals with Down’s syndrome is believed to be linked to their inheritance of an additional copy of the amyloid precursor protein (APP) found on chromosome 21.

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred vision. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing these side effects?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, urinary retention, and dry skin, are commonly associated with Amitriptyline and other tricyclic antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic. The GP feels that they have depression, and reports that they smoke 50 per day. When you see them you notice that their left eyelid is drooping, and that the drooping becomes more pronounced on sustained upgaze. The pupils appear normal. On further questioning the patient reports intermittent double vision. Which of the following do you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Horner's Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fluctuating double vision and ptosis are characteristic symptoms of extraocular muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. The Simpson test, which involves observing fatigue during sustained lid and eye elevation, is also indicative of myasthenia. Unlike myotonic dystrophy, ptosis in myasthenia gravis worsens with sustained upgaze and is typically unilateral. Additionally, the absence of abnormal pupil size suggests that conditions such as Horner’s syndrome, diabetes-related III nerve palsy, and Pancoast tumor are not present.

      Myasthenia Gravis and Psychiatric Disorders

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from the binding of circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. This condition is characterized by weakness and fatigue, which typically starts in the extraocular muscles, leading to ptosis and diplopia. However, in addition to these physical symptoms, psychiatric disorders are also common in patients with myasthenia gravis.

      Depressive and anxiety disorders are the most frequently reported psychiatric conditions in individuals with myasthenia gravis. These disorders can significantly impact the quality of life of patients, and may even worsen the physical symptoms of the disease. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for psychiatric comorbidities in patients with myasthenia gravis and to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following candidate genes for schizophrenia is located on chromosome 6?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following candidate genes for schizophrenia is located on chromosome 6?

      Your Answer: DTNBP1

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month...

    Incorrect

    • A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month research placement as part of their training program. They are collaborating with a team of psychopharmacologists who are studying the mechanism of action of a novel antidepressant medication.
      What is the primary group of molecules that most known antidepressants target?

      Your Answer: G-protein-linked receptors

      Correct Answer: Transmembrane transporters

      Explanation:

      Most antidepressants and stimulants target monoamine transporters, which are crucial molecular targets. These transporters are also targeted by 30% of all psychotropic drugs. Another 30% of psychotropic drugs target G-protein-linked receptors, while enzymes are targeted by about 10% of these drugs. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of antidepressant that targets the enzyme monoamine oxidase. Ligand-gated and voltage-gated ion channels are targeted by 20% and 10% of all psychotropic drugs, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the active ingredient in Subutex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the active ingredient in Subutex?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine only

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the principle utilized to forecast the temporal pattern of medication levels...

    Incorrect

    • What is the principle utilized to forecast the temporal pattern of medication levels in various regions of the body?

      Your Answer: Pharmacodynamic

      Correct Answer: Pharmacokinetic

      Explanation:

      The time course of drug concentration in various body parts is described and predicted by pharmacokinetics, while pharmacodynamics is used to describe the intensity and time course of a drug’s effects. Pharmacological actions encompass genetic and environmental factors that affect an individual’s response to and tolerance of psychotropic agents. The mechanism of drugs’ therapeutic effects is described as how they are produced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the Gottesman data?

      Your Answer: 23%

      Correct Answer: 17%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: A Genetic Disorder

      Adoption studies have consistently shown that biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder with incomplete penetrance, as evidenced by the fact that monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of approximately 50%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate of 17%. This indicates a significant genetic contribution to the disorder, with an estimated heritability of 80%. Segregation analysis suggests that schizophrenia follows a multifactorial model.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use...

    Correct

    • What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use of lamotrigine?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the accurate definition of drug clearance? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate definition of drug clearance?

      Your Answer: The volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specified time period

      Explanation:

      Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body

      Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.

      There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.

      Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.

      It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - For which condition is the Addenbrooke's exam (ACE-III) most beneficial in evaluating? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is the Addenbrooke's exam (ACE-III) most beneficial in evaluating?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the mechanism believed to be responsible for the therapeutic effect of...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism believed to be responsible for the therapeutic effect of buspirone?

      Your Answer: 5HT1A partial agonism

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is a true statement about flight of ideas? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about flight of ideas?

      Your Answer: It is pathognomonic of mania

      Correct Answer: It can be caused by lesions of the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Mania often presents with flight of ideas, and most cases are of unknown origin, resulting in a diagnosis of primary bipolar disorder. However, in some cases, manic, hypomanic, of mixed episodes may occur after an organic insult, such as a stroke, traumatic brain injury, of tumor. The most common locations for these lesions are the thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, and frontal and temporal cortices. According to a systematic review and pooled lesion analysis by Barahona-CorrĂȘa (2020), right-sided brain lesions are more prevalent among patients with lesional mania.

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      29.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (8/11) 73%
Dynamic Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/4) 25%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Passmed