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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She has a history of multiple sexual partners and was recently treated for gonorrhoeae with ceftriaxone. Although she does not take any regular medications, she admits to using illicit drugs such as marijuana and cocaine. During the physical examination, you notice that her uterus is hard and tender. What risk factor in her medical history is likely to contribute to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Cocaine use

      Explanation:

      The risk of placental abruption is increased by cocaine abuse due to its ability to cause vasospasm in the placental blood vessels. Ceftriaxone use, which is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoeae, is not a known risk factor for placental abruption and is therefore a distractor. Although gonorrhoeae can lead to chorioamnionitis, which is a known risk factor for placental abruption, there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case and it is less likely than cocaine use. Primiparity is an incorrect answer as it is actually multiparity that is a risk factor for placental abruption.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - You are conducting a study on the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis in pregnant women. Some...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a study on the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis in pregnant women. Some of the hormone concentrations are observed to increase during this stage. Your team observes that one hormone in particular shows a more significant increase than the others. Which hormone is most likely to display this greater increase?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol

      Correct Answer: Oestriol

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are significant hormonal changes that occur in a woman’s body. One of the most notable changes is the increase in concentration of oestriol, which is the least potent of the three oestrogens. Oestrogen plays a crucial role in controlling other hormones such as FSH and LH, stimulating and controlling the growth of the placenta, and promoting the growth of maternal breast tissue in preparation for lactation.

      Another hormone that increases during pregnancy is oestradiol, which is approximately 50-fold higher. Oestrone also increases, but oestradiol is more potent as it acts on a wider range of receptors.

      On the other hand, LH and FSH are downregulated during pregnancy due to the high levels of oestrogen. The release of FSH is inhibited as follicles do not need to be stimulated during pregnancy.

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  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old female patient arrives at 38 weeks gestation with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient arrives at 38 weeks gestation with a 4-day history of headaches and swelling in her lower limbs. Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 168/86 mmHg, and a urine dipstick reveals proteinuria. While being examined, she experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that resolves on its own. An emergency C-section is planned, and another seizure occurs. What is the best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulfate until 24 hours after last seizure or 24 hours after delivery

      Explanation:

      Magnesium sulfate should be continued for at least 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure in the management of eclampsia. This patient’s condition has progressed to eclampsia, and the primary concern is preventing seizures and delivering the baby. Magnesium sulfate is the preferred agent for managing seizures and providing neuroprotection to the baby. Stopping magnesium sulfate immediately after the last seizure still poses a risk of another seizure occurring, so it should be continued for another 24 hours. Correcting hypertension alone is unlikely to resolve the seizures, so antihypertensive therapy should be given in addition to magnesium sulfate.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old patient who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your GP clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your GP clinic with worries about a high reading on a blood pressure machine at home. She has no medical history and is not experiencing any symptoms. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 160/110 mmHg and there is no indication of proteinuria on urine dipstick testing. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start home blood pressure monitoring for 7 days and discuss results with obstetrics

      Correct Answer: Arrange obstetric assessment immediately with likely admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      All pregnant women who develop hypertension (systolic blood pressure over 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure over 90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of pregnancy should receive a secondary care assessment by a healthcare professional trained in managing hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. It is not recommended to delay this assessment by monitoring blood pressure over several days or providing lifestyle advice alone. The obstetric department may initiate antihypertensive medication and aspirin for the patient, but those with a blood pressure of 160/110 or higher are likely to be admitted for further monitoring and treatment.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman presents at 38+5 weeks’ gestation to the Labour Ward...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman presents at 38+5 weeks’ gestation to the Labour Ward with regular contractions that have started about three hours ago.
      On examination, she has a short, soft cervix which is 2 cm dilated. Contractions are roughly every 4–5 minutes and are palpable, demonstrated on cardiotocography, but are not very strong or painful at present.
      Which of the following statements applies to the first stage of labour?

      Your Answer: It occurs at a rate of about 1 cm per hour in a nulliparous woman

      Explanation:

      Labour is the process of giving birth and is divided into three stages. The first stage begins with regular contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm. This stage is further divided into a latent phase, where the cervix dilates to 4 cm, and an active phase, where the cervix dilates from 4 cm to 10 cm. The rate of cervical dilation in a nulliparous woman is approximately 1 cm per hour, while in a multiparous woman, it is approximately 2 cm per hour. The second stage of labour begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends with the delivery of the baby. During this stage, fetal heart rate monitoring should occur at least every five minutes and after each contraction. Cervical incompetence, which involves cervical shortening and dilation in the absence of contractions, can result in premature delivery or second trimester loss and is more common in women with a multiple pregnancy, previous cervical incompetence, or a history of cervical surgery. These women can be managed with monitoring of cervical length, cervical cerclage, or progesterone cervical pessaries. The third stage of labour involves the delivery of the placenta and membranes.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department at 25+3 weeks gestation with tightness and a thin watery discharge. Her pregnancy has been uneventful thus far, with all scans showing normal results. She maintains good diabetes control by using an insulin pump.

      During a speculum examination, no fluid is observed, and the cervical os is closed. A fetal fibronectin (fFN) test is conducted, which returns a positive result of 300.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge and reassure

      Correct Answer: Admit for 2 doses IM steroids and monitor BMs closely, adjusting pump accordingly

      Explanation:

      Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein that is released from the gestational sac and is associated with early labor if levels are high. However, a positive result does not guarantee premature labor. Obstetric teams can use this information to prepare for the possibility of premature labor by informing neonatal intensive care and administering steroids to aid in neonatal lung maturity. In this case, the patient is at high risk for premature labor and experiencing tightenings, so further monitoring is necessary before discharge.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if the patient had spontaneously ruptured her membranes, but in this case, a history of watery discharge without fluid seen on speculum examination and a closed os is not enough to initiate antibiotic therapy. However, swabs and urine cultures should be obtained to screen for infection and treat as appropriate since infection can be a factor in premature labor.

      Administering steroids can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics, so blood glucose measurements should be closely monitored. Hyperglycemia in the mother can have adverse effects on the fetus, so hourly blood glucose measurements should be taken, and additional insulin given as needed. If blood glucose levels are difficult to control, a sliding scale should be initiated according to local protocol.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal bleeding. What distinguishing characteristic would suggest a diagnosis of placenta praevia instead of placenta abruption?

      Your Answer: Shock out of keeping with visible blood loss

      Correct Answer: No pain

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Placental Abruption from Placenta Praevia in Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of pregnancy but before delivery of the fetus. It is important to determine the cause of the bleeding to provide appropriate management. Two common causes of antepartum haemorrhage are placental abruption and placenta praevia.

      Placental abruption is characterized by shock that is not proportional to the visible loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, a normal lie and presentation, and an absent or distressed fetal heart. Coagulation problems may also be present, and healthcare providers should be cautious of pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      On the other hand, placenta praevia is characterized by shock that is proportional to the visible loss, no pain, a uterus that is not tender, an abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before a large one. It is important to note that vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage, as women with placenta praevia may experience bleeding.

      In summary, distinguishing between placental abruption and placenta praevia is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage. Healthcare providers should carefully assess the patient’s symptoms and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to determine the cause of the bleeding.

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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She is currently taking losartan 50 mg daily and her BP measures 130/88 mmHg. What guidance should be provided to this patient in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should switch losartan to labetolol and ensure her BP is well controlled prior to attempting to get pregnant

      Explanation:

      Safe antihypertensive Medications for Pregnancy

      Explanation:
      When planning to get pregnant, it is important to ensure that any medications being taken are safe for the developing fetus. In the case of hypertension, switching to a safe medication prior to conception is recommended. Labetalol is the best-studied antihypertensive in pregnancy and is considered safe. Losartan, on the other hand, is contraindicated as it may affect renal development. Simply reducing the dosage of losartan is not enough to mitigate the risks of fetal maldevelopment. It is also important to maintain good blood pressure control prior to conception. Stopping antihypertensive medications abruptly is not recommended as it may lead to uncontrolled hypertension, which is associated with increased fetal loss. By taking these precautions, women can increase their chances of carrying a healthy fetus to term.

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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the antenatal clinic to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. She has a history of delivering her previous pregnancies through vaginal and elective caesarean section, respectively. What is the definite reason for not allowing vaginal delivery after a previous caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertical (classic) caesarean scar

      Explanation:

      VBAC is not recommended for patients who have had previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, experienced uterine rupture in the past, or have other contraindications to vaginal birth such as placenta praevia. However, women who have had two or more previous caesarean sections may still be considered for VBAC. The remaining options in this question do not necessarily rule out VBAC.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. The uterus is evacuated, but she continues to feel unwell and her β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-HCG) levels continue to increase in the following weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a rare condition that includes hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor. GTD occurs when abnormal trophoblastic tissue forms instead of a fetus after fertilization. Hydatidiform moles are the most common form of GTD and are found in about 1 in every 1000 births. They often present with signs of early pregnancy failure, such as heavy vaginal bleeding. Treatment involves removing the abnormal tissue, and close monitoring of beta-HCG levels is necessary post-evacuation. If levels fail to drop, it may indicate an invasive mole or choriocarcinoma, which requires referral to a specialist center for further treatment. Pituitary and adrenal adenomas are other types of tumors that can produce hormones and cause various symptoms. In contrast, ectopic pregnancy is a separate condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.

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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old primiparous woman, who is a smoker and has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primiparous woman, who is a smoker and has been diagnosed with pre-eclampsia, presents to the Antenatal Assessment Unit at 34 weeks’ gestation with sudden-onset lower abdominal pain, associated with a small amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. The pain has gradually worsened and is constant. On examination, she looks a bit pale; her heart rate is 106 bpm, and blood pressure 104/86 mmHg. The uterus feels hard; she is tender on abdominal examination, and there is some brown discharge on the pad.
      What is the likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Revealed placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum Haemorrhage: Causes and Symptoms

      Antepartum haemorrhage is a condition where a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding during the second half of pregnancy. There are several causes of antepartum haemorrhage, including placental abruption, concealed placental abruption, placenta accreta, placenta praevia, and premature labour.

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine lining, leading to bleeding. It can be revealed, with vaginal bleeding, or concealed, without vaginal bleeding. Risk factors for placental abruption include maternal hypertension, smoking, cocaine use, trauma, and bleeding post-procedures.

      Concealed placental abruption is usually an incidental finding, with the mother recalling an episode of pain without vaginal bleeding. Placenta accreta occurs when part of the placenta grows into the myometrium, causing severe intrapartum and postpartum haemorrhage. Placenta praevia is a low-lying placenta that can cause painless vaginal bleeding and requires an elective Caesarean section. Premature labour is another common cause of antepartum bleeding associated with abdominal pain, with cyclical pain and variable vaginal bleeding.

      It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing antepartum haemorrhage, as it can lead to significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. Women with placenta praevia are advised to attend the Antenatal Unit for assessment and monitoring every time they have bleeding.

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  • Question 14 - Which of these is a possible indication for induction of labour in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is a possible indication for induction of labour in a 30-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncomplicated pregnancy at 41 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      1. The Bishop’s score rates the cervix out of 10, with a higher score indicating a more favorable cervix and a greater likelihood of spontaneous birth. A score below 5 suggests that labor is unlikely to begin without induction.

      2. This is not a reason to induce labor.

      3. It is recommended that women with uncomplicated pregnancies be offered induction between 41-42 weeks to prevent the risks associated with prolonged pregnancy.

      4. A previous classical Caesarean section is an absolute contraindication for inducing labor.

      5. Inducing labor is not advisable when the fetus is in a breech position.

      Reference: NICE guidelines – Inducing labor and Antenatal care for uncomplicated pregnancies.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.

      During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L

      An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.

      After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 16 - You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She is concerned about the possibility of developing postpartum psychosis again, as she had experienced it in her previous pregnancy and was hospitalized. What is the likelihood of her developing this condition once more?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25-50 %

      Explanation:

      To monitor her throughout her pregnancy and postnatal period, this woman requires a referral to a perinatal mental health team due to her increased risk of postpartum psychosis. It would have been preferable for her to receive preconception advice before becoming pregnant. The recurrence rate is not influenced by the baby’s gender.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications. However, during a shopping trip a few hours ago, she felt a sudden rush of fluid from her vagina and noticed that her underwear was wet.
      The triage nurse has already taken her vital signs, which are all within normal limits.
      What is the initial test that should be performed based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently 29 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. She reports that her palms and soles of her feet have been extremely itchy for the past few days, and the sensation has now spread to her abdomen. However, she feels otherwise healthy and denies experiencing nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health, without signs of jaundice or rash. Her vital signs are normal, and her blood tests are generally unremarkable, except for a slightly elevated bilirubin level.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate topic to discuss with her regarding definitive management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing intense pruritus and has elevated bilirubin levels, which are common symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Due to the heightened risk of stillbirth, induction of labor at 37 weeks is typically recommended. While a caesarian section at 37 weeks may be considered, there is insufficient evidence to support this approach over induction. Induction at 34 weeks is not advisable, and reassurance with a normal delivery at term is not appropriate. Therefore, a discussion regarding induction at 37 weeks is necessary.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a locum general practitioner, to inform you about her pregnancy. Upon reviewing her medical history, you discover that Emily has asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, constipation, and a recent deep vein thrombosis. She is currently taking senna, over the counter ranitidine, budesonide and salbutamol inhalers, and rivaroxaban. However, none of her medications have been altered due to her pregnancy status. Can you identify which medication needs to be changed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should not use novel oral anticoagulants, so those who are currently taking them should switch to low molecular weight heparin.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant and has been admitted to the hospital due to severe pre-eclampsia. The obstetric team is worried about the possibility of eclampsia.

      What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Severe Pre-eclampsia and Eclampsia

      The recommended treatment for severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In addition, antihypertensive treatment is also important, with labetalol being the first line of treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Nifedipine and methyldopa also have a role to play.

      Magnesium sulphate should be administered to patients with severe hypertension and proteinuria, as well as those with mild or moderate hypertension and proteinuria who exhibit symptoms such as severe headache, problems with vision, severe pain just below the ribs or vomiting, papilloedema, signs of clonus, liver tenderness, HELLP syndrome, platelet count falling to below 100 ×109/L, or abnormal liver enzymes.

      The administration of magnesium sulphate involves a 4 g loading dose given intravenously over five minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 g/hr for 24 hours. In the event of recurrent seizures, an additional bolus dose of 2-4 g should be given over five minutes.

      Overall, the treatment for severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia involves a combination of intravenous magnesium sulphate and antihypertensive medication, with the dosage and administration of magnesium sulphate varying depending on the patient’s symptoms and condition.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (4/9) 44%
Passmed