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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints of offensive-smelling urine and suprapubic pain. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms during a previous urinary tract infection. The patient seems to be in considerable discomfort at present.

      What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of antibiotics based on previous sensitivities (if available) and send another sample for culture today

      Explanation:

      Research suggests that catheterised patients with a UTI experience better outcomes when treated with a 7-day course of antibiotics instead of a 3-day course. In cases where a patient has mild symptoms, it may be appropriate to wait for a culture before administering treatment. However, if a patient is experiencing significant discomfort, delaying treatment is not recommended. A history of only one previous UTI is not sufficient reason to refer a patient to urology. At present, there is no recommendation for the use of topical antibiotics in catheterised patients with UTIs.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      11.9
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  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

    Which single feature best suggests...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.

      Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?

      Your Answer: Ingestion of more than one drug

      Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.

      In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.

      During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to ENT clinic for consideration of a septoplasty

      Correct Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment

      Explanation:

      If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.

      If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.

      Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.

      If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.

      If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.

      Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma

      Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.

      Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.7
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  • Question 4 - An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam by the paediatricians following a recent outpatient appointment.

      Following initiation in secondary care the paediatricians have advised he continue taking the levetiracetam at a maintenance dose of 20 mg/kg twice daily.

      His current weight is 30 kg. Levetiracetam oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 100 mg/ml.

      What is the correct dosage of levetiracetam in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 6 ml BD

      Correct Answer: 3 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Calculating Levetiracetam Dose

      When calculating the dose of Levetiracetam oral solution, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the recommended dosage of 25 mg/kg BD. For example, if the patient weighs 24 kg, the total daily dose would be 600 mg BD. Since the oral solution is 100 mg/ml, this would equate to 6 ml BD. It is crucial to accurately calculate the dose to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      77.9
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.9
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions

      Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      10.2
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroid

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Repaglinide

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with strep throat and prescribed antibiotics. He neglected to inquire about the duration of time she should stay home from preschool. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Correct Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      After starting antibiotics, children with whooping cough can go back to school or nursery within 48 hours, typically with a macrolide.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      10.4
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  • Question 10 - A 6-week-old baby is brought in for her first routine check-up in the...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby is brought in for her first routine check-up in the practice. She has had no problems except for a persistent sticky right eye despite two courses of antibiotic drops. On examination, she has some discharge at the medial canthus but her eyes look normal. Swabs sent previously showed normal upper respiratory tract flora.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nasolacrimal duct obstruction

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions in Newborns

      The nasolacrimal duct may not be fully developed in 5-10% of newborns, but it typically resolves on its own by 12 months. Cleaning the medial canthus is usually sufficient, and antibiotics are not effective unless an infection occurs. Surgery is rarely necessary.

      Ophthalmia neonatorum is a type of conjunctivitis that occurs within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by bacteria such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae, as well as viruses like herpes simplex virus. If left untreated, it can lead to serious eye damage.

      Allergic conjunctivitis is uncommon in infants under 1 year old, but viral and bacterial conjunctivitis can occur. Both eyes are typically affected, and in addition to eye discharge, the conjunctiva will appear inflamed.

      Understanding Eye Conditions in Newborns

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer: Iron and folate supplements should be routinely prescribed

      Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.

      The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.

      To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.

      Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.3
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor. He reports feeling less active than he used to but has no other specific complaints and is not taking any regular medication. Biochemical tests reveal the following results: serum alkaline phosphatase of 550 U/l (normal range: 44-147 U/l), serum creatinine concentration of 132 µmol/l (normal range: 60-120 µmol/l), calcium of 2.42 mmol/l (normal range: 2.25-2.5 mmol/l), phosphate of 1.21 mmol/l (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), and albumin of 41 g/l (normal range: 35-50 g/l). What is the most likely cause of the high alkaline phosphatase?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Elevated Serum Alkaline Phosphatase Activity in Bone Diseases

      Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity is a common finding in bone diseases that involve increased osteoblastic activity. One such condition is Paget’s disease of bone, which is often seen in elderly patients and may not always present with symptoms. In contrast, osteomalacia typically presents with symptoms such as pain, proximal muscle weakness, or a general feeling of being unwell, and is characterized by low-normal or low serum calcium levels. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, doesn’t typically result in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels or abnormal serum biochemistry results. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by elevated levels of both alkaline phosphatase and calcium, is unlikely in patients with normal calcium levels. Finally, while renal osteodystrophy may be associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, the severity of renal impairment in this patient is not likely to be the cause of such a high level. In addition, serum phosphate levels are usually elevated and calcium levels are low in this condition. Overall, understanding the relationship between serum alkaline phosphatase activity and various bone diseases can help clinicians make accurate diagnoses and develop appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      102.7
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old lady has come to see you about a DEXA scan result.
    You...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady has come to see you about a DEXA scan result.
      You would like to start treatment with a bisphosphonate.
      What specific advice should you give (and document) to this patient before starting treatment with a bisphosphonate?

      Your Answer: She should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms

      Correct Answer: She should lie down for at least 15 minutes after taking a tablet

      Explanation:

      Risks and Precautions for Bisphosphonate Therapy

      Patients who are prescribed bisphosphonates should take certain precautions to ensure their safety and minimize the risk of adverse effects. It is important to maintain good oral hygiene, receive regular dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Additionally, any disturbances in calcium and mineral metabolism should be corrected before starting treatment, and serum-calcium concentration should be monitored during therapy.

      Before starting bisphosphonate therapy, patients should be informed of the potential risks associated with the treatment. These risks are higher for patients receiving intravenous bisphosphonates in secondary care than those prescribed oral treatment by their family doctor. Atypical femoral fractures are a possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any thigh, hip, or groin pain during treatment. Osteonecrosis of the jaw is another potential risk, and patients should maintain good oral hygiene, receive routine dental check-ups, and report any oral symptoms. Finally, osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal is a rare but possible risk, and patients should be advised to report any ear pain, discharge from the ear, or ear infection during treatment with a bisphosphonate. By taking these precautions and being aware of the potential risks, patients can safely and effectively use bisphosphonate therapy to manage their conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      16
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  • Question 15 - John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint...

    Correct

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.6
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.

      On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.

      How would you manage her?

      Your Answer: Admit immediately

      Correct Answer: Review next day

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.

      The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.

      It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      11.7
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  • Question 17 - A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some...

    Correct

    • A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

      Explanation:

      When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old smoker of 20 cigarettes a day, presents with a three month...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old smoker of 20 cigarettes a day, presents with a three month history of persistent hoarseness. On direct questioning he admits to left-sided earache.

      On examination he is hoarse and has mild stridor. Examination of his ears is normal. Endoscopy of his upper airway shows an irregular mass in the larynx.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the larynx

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Laryngeal Pathology

      This patient’s heavy smoking and symptoms suggest laryngeal pathology, with an irregular mass noted on nasal endoscopy. These features point to a diagnosis of laryngeal carcinoma, the most common cause of hoarseness in adults.

      Laryngeal papillomatosis, caused by HPV genotypes 6 and 11, is more common in children and presents with generalised lumpiness in the larynx and trachea. Familiarity with the condition can aid diagnosis, but biopsy is usually necessary.

      Laryngeal lymphoma is extremely rare and is usually accompanied by lymphoma elsewhere in the body. Laryngeal TB can resemble carcinoma but is also very rare. Thyroid cancer presents as a thyroid lump and can also cause hoarseness, but laryngeal carcinoma is the most common cause.

      In summary, when presented with a patient who is a heavy smoker and exhibiting symptoms of laryngeal pathology, an irregular mass on nasal endoscopy is highly suggestive of laryngeal carcinoma. Other conditions such as laryngeal papillomatosis, lymphoma, TB, and thyroid cancer should also be considered but are much less common. Biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      212.7
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain during intercourse. She has previously been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced lower abdominal pain. She is concerned about the impact of the pain on her desire to start a family. What is the recommended course of management?

      Your Answer: Refer for psychosexual counselling

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences both deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, it is probable that she has endometriosis. However, if she is trying to conceive, she cannot use initial treatment options like the combined pill. To confirm the diagnosis, a laparoscopy is the preferred method. A pelvic ultrasound is not the most effective way to diagnose endometriosis and may not show any abnormalities in cases of mild to moderate disease.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old man with learning disabilities is brought to his General Practitioner by...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with learning disabilities is brought to his General Practitioner by his carer who has noticed a change in his behaviour. This has been ongoing for a number of weeks, possibly longer, but was initially attributed to having moved residential home. On examination, the patient has lost 7 kg in weight since his last review (six months ago) and seems distressed on examination of his abdomen.
      Which of the following is most likely to be true for this patient, compared to an age-matched population?

      Your Answer: Diagnosis of physical illness is more challenging

      Explanation:

      Challenges in Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities

      Diagnosing physical illness in people with learning disabilities can be difficult, as symptoms are often attributed to mental health or behavioural issues. This can lead to delays in treatment and even premature death. Antipsychotic medication is often prescribed despite a lack of evidence of its effectiveness. Healthcare providers must make reasonable adjustments to accommodate communication difficulties. People with learning disabilities are more likely to be exposed to social determinants of poor health, but are less likely to be underweight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      30.7
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  • Question 21 - You are providing treatment for a 28-year-old female patient who has vulvovaginal Candida...

    Incorrect

    • You are providing treatment for a 28-year-old female patient who has vulvovaginal Candida infection using intravaginal and topical clotrimazole. Is there a form of contraception that may become less effective due to this medication?

      Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Condom

      Explanation:

      Patients should be cautioned that vaginal and topical imidazoles, such as clotrimazole, may harm barrier methods of contraception. However, there is no clear guidance on the duration of abstinence or use of non-barrier methods. According to NICE CKS, patients should avoid using barrier methods during treatment and for several days after stopping antifungal treatment.

      Limited evidence suggests that the combined oral contraceptive pill may contribute to the development of genital Candida infection. Patients with recurrent infections may benefit from switching to the progesterone depot injection. While the IUS increases the presence of Candida, it doesn’t increase the rate of symptomatic infection.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek that has been present for 3 days. The area is red, warm, slightly tender, and measures 2 cm in diameter. She has no significant medical history except for a penicillin allergy. She is not experiencing fever and the rash appears to be a mild facial cellulitis without any involvement of the periorbital or orbital regions. What course of treatment do you recommend?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin 500mg bd 1 week

      Explanation:

      For adults with mild facial cellulitis, the recommended treatment is a 7-day course of co-amoxiclav or clarithromycin for those with a penicillin allergy. A review should be arranged after 48 hours, either by telephone or face-to-face, depending on clinical judgement.

      Urgent hospital admission is necessary for patients with red flags such as Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, immunocompromised individuals, very young or frail patients, those with significant lymphoedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis unless it is very mild. For Eron Class II cellulitis, admission may not be necessary if the community has the facilities and expertise to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient, subject to local guidelines.

      The Eron classification system can assist in determining the appropriate level of care and treatment. Class I patients show no signs of systemic toxicity and have no uncontrolled co-morbidities. Class II patients are either systemically unwell or have a comorbidity that may complicate or delay resolution of infection. Class III patients have significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infections due to vascular compromise. Class IV patients have sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotising fasciitis.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.3
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  • Question 23 - The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.

      The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.

      The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.

      You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.

      The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.

      It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.8
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  • Question 24 - What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s Disease: How to Examine and Test for it

      De Quervain’s disease is a condition where the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed and thickened. To examine a patient with this condition, one can perform a Finkelstein’s test. This test involves the patient making a fist with their thumb tucked inside their fingers, and then bending their wrist towards their little finger. If the patient experiences pain on the thumb side of their wrist, it is likely that they have De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 44-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of feeling constantly fatigued and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of feeling constantly fatigued and experiencing occasional joint pains. She has undergone some initial blood tests, including a complete blood count, liver and kidney function tests, thyroid function, and bone profile, all of which have come back normal. Despite this, she is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Upon further questioning, she denies any history of rash, mouth sores, or hair loss, and her physical examination is unremarkable. However, she remains anxious and is requesting another blood test to rule out the possibility of lupus.

      What is the most appropriate blood test to perform in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibodies

      Explanation:

      The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic diseases in adults, but it is not very accurate without typical clinical features. While tests like anti-dsDNA are more specific for SLE, they are less sensitive, meaning a negative result doesn’t necessarily rule out the condition.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      189.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change in his medication. He had previously been taking quetiapine, but his behavior had become more erratic and he developed new delusions. Upon receiving his discharge letter, it was requested that the practice perform full blood counts every week for a total of 18 weeks, followed by every 2 weeks until 1 year of treatment. In addition to this new medication regimen, the patient has also been prescribed hyoscine hydrobromide to manage the side effect of hypersalivation. What is the name of the antipsychotic medication that has been prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the correct answer, as it carries a risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is prescribed for patients with Schizophrenia who do not respond to conventional antipsychotics. Monitoring for olanzapine should include regular checks of blood glucose, lipids, and weight. Haloperidol is not commonly used for schizophrenia, but a baseline ECG is recommended before starting treatment. The BNF doesn’t specify any particular monitoring requirements for paliperidone or aripiprazole.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit and well with no relevant past medical history. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for 10 years. She takes no other medication, has no relevant family history. Her blood pressure (BP) and BMI are normal. She takes the COCP as contraception as she is still having regular periods.

      Which statement below is true?

      Your Answer: The progesterone-only injectable would be a suitable alternative for this patient

      Correct Answer: She should be advised to stop taking the COCP for contraception, and prescribe an alternative, safer method

      Explanation:

      For women over 40, combined hormonal contraception (COCP) can be beneficial in reducing menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviating menopausal symptoms. However, it is important to consider certain factors when prescribing COCP to women over 40. The UKMEC criteria for women over 40 is 2, while for women from menarche until 40, it is 1. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health recommends the use of COCP until age 50, provided there are no other contraindications. However, women over 50 should be advised to switch to a safer alternative method of contraception, as the risks associated with COCP use outweigh the benefits. Women who smoke should stop using COCP at 35, as smoking increases the risk of mortality. While COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, there is a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, which diminishes after 10 years of cessation. Women using COCP for non-contraceptive benefits after the age of 50 should be considered on an individual basis using clinical judgement and informed choice.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      110.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory blood pressure testing.

      She has no heart murmurs and her chest is clear. Past medical history includes asthma and chronic lymphoedema of the legs.

      As per the latest NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136), what would be the most suitable approach to manage her blood pressure in this situation?

      Your Answer: Treat with ramipril

      Correct Answer: Advise lifestyle changes and repeat in one year

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antihypertensive Treatment for People Over 55 and Black People of African or Caribbean Family Origin

      According to the latest NICE guidance, people aged over 55 years and black people of African or Caribbean family origin of any age should be offered step 1 antihypertensive treatment with a CCB. If a CCB is not suitable due to oedema or intolerance, or if there is evidence of heart failure or a high risk of heart failure, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered instead.

      This guidance aims to provide effective treatment options for hypertension in these specific populations, taking into account individual circumstances and potential side effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.3
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being a victim of domestic abuse by his partner.
      Which of the following choices is LEAST PROBABLE to corroborate his statement?

      Your Answer: Afraid to go out because he will be accused of having an affair

      Correct Answer: He had to strike the partner because she 'wound him up'

      Explanation:

      Understanding Domestic Violence: Identifying Victims and Perpetrators

      Domestic violence is a form of abusive and controlling behavior that gives the abuser power over the victim. It is not limited to heterosexual relationships and can occur in any kind of relationship. According to a survey conducted in 2012-2013, 7.1% of women and 4.4% of men reported experiencing domestic violence.

      It is crucial to correctly identify whether the patient is a victim or a perpetrator as incorrect identification can have severe consequences for the patient, their partner, and any children involved. Striking out at a partner is an action of a perpetrator, and no matter how annoying they find their partner, they are not legally allowed to hurt them. The other four options could be examples of abuse against the perpetrator.

      For those interested in learning more about the issues surrounding male victims of domestic violence, the Respect Toolkit for Work with Male Victims of Domestic Violence (2019) provides an excellent overview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?

      Renal failure
      16%
      Pyrexia
      5%
      Elevated creatine kinase
      6%
      Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
      68%
      Tachycardia
      5%

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.

      Your Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.

      Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      16.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (4/4) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/3) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Passmed