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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception. She wants to know when she can have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted. She had a caesarean section due to failure to progress during labor. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: An IUD can be inserted today

      Correct Answer: An IUD can be inserted 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      The guidelines indicate that there is no requirement to delay further, even if a caesarean section was performed.

      Contraindications for Insertion of Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices

      When it comes to the insertion of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs), there are very few contraindications. However, it is important to note that some conditions may increase the risks associated with the procedure. According to the Faculty of Family Planning and Reproductive Health Care, there are certain conditions that fall under UKMEC Category 3, where the risks outweigh the benefits. These include insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks postpartum, as well as initiation of the method in women with ovarian cancer.

      On the other hand, UKMEC Category 4 lists conditions that pose an unacceptable risk for IUD insertion. These include pregnancy, current pelvic infection, puerperal sepsis, immediate post-septic abortion, unexplained vaginal bleeding, and uterine fibroids or anatomical abnormalities that distort the uterine cavity.

      In addition, NICE guidelines from 2005 recommend screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) before IUD insertion. Women at risk of STIs should be tested for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, especially in areas where the latter is prevalent. Women who request it should also be tested for any STIs. For those at increased risk of STIs, prophylactic antibiotics should be given before IUD insertion if testing has not yet been completed.

      It is important to consider these contraindications and guidelines before undergoing IUD insertion to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis of the spine
      Osteopenia of the left and right femur

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly...

    Correct

    • A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.

      Definitions

      • Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.

        Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Data from the Study

      • Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
      • True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
      • False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10

      Calculation of Sensitivity

      Using the formula for sensitivity:

      Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Sensitivity=40/(40+10)

      Sensitivity=40/50

      Sensitivity=0.8

      Sensitivity=0.8×100=80%

      Conclusion

      The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      599.5
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate a deficiency in vitamin B12. Which of the following medications could be a contributing factor?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible...

    Incorrect

    • If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?

      Your Answer: Randomised controlled trial (RCT)

      Correct Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      41.9
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      198.6
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  • Question 7 - You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against a regular vaccine currently prescribed. The study aims to determine if the new vaccine reduces the number of people getting the flu over a year. The results show 100 people got the flu out of 500 people on the regular vaccine and 50 people got the flu out of 500 people on the new vaccine.

      What is the relative risk reduction in this study?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The formula for relative risk reduction is (EER – CER) / CER, where EER is the experimental event rate and CER is the control event rate. To calculate the relative risk reduction, subtract the control event rate from the experimental event rate, then divide the result by the control event rate.

      For example, if the experimental event rate is 20 out of 100 and the control event rate is 50 out of 100, the relative risk reduction would be (20/100 – 50/100) / 50/100 = 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      181
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.

      Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers for Heart Failure

      Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma for which she takes salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler and salbutamol PRN. Most recently she was started on allopurinol tablets for gout. You also increased her hypertension medication at her last appointment.
      On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a heart rate of around 110.
      Investigations show:
      Hb 110 g/L (120 - 160)
      WCC 6.2 ×109/L (4 - 11)
      PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      Na 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Cr 140 µmol/L (60 - 110)
      ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute changes.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Theophylline Toxicity and Drug Interactions

      The scenario presented here is typical of theophylline toxicity, with symptoms such as headaches, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, and hypokalaemia. However, the cause of this toxicity is due to an increase in theophylline levels caused by allopurinol. Other drugs that can increase theophylline levels include carbimazole, cimetidine, erythromycin, and many others. It is important to note that calcium channel blockers may also increase theophylline levels, but not as much as allopurinol. Therefore, it is crucial to reduce theophylline dose when starting allopurinol. Questions about drug safety and significant interactions are common in the AKT exam, so it is essential to stay updated on important drug safety notifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old single mother has recently joined your practice. She is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old single mother has recently joined your practice. She is interested in continuing with depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injection for contraception but cannot recall when she last received the injection. There are no indications or indications of pregnancy, and she had sexual intercourse 10 days ago (with a condom) and began her regular period four days ago. What guidance would you offer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the injection and advise avoidance or barrier method for 7 days after the injection

      Explanation:

      Guidance on Timing of Depot Injection and Pregnancy Testing

      When it comes to administering depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injections, it is important to consider the timing of the previous injection and the possibility of pregnancy. If the timing of the previous injection is unknown, it is recommended to repeat the injection as long as it is reasonably certain that the woman is not pregnant. This can be determined if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and if the woman meets certain criteria, such as not having had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses or using a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.

      If a woman has had sexual intercourse within the past three weeks, a pregnancy test should be performed no sooner than three weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and should be negative before administering the injection. However, if the woman’s last menstrual period was within seven days, it is considered reasonably certain that she is not pregnant and the injection can be given without a pregnancy test.

      It is important to advise the woman to avoid intercourse or use a barrier method of contraception for seven days after the injection. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and effectiveness of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy with Down's Syndrome and his guardian visit their General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy with Down's Syndrome and his guardian visit their General Practitioner for a check-up as the boy has been struggling with his schoolwork. What are the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence's recommendations for annual health checks for individuals with a learning disability by General Practitioners?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Current health interventions should be reviewed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Annual Physical Health Checks for People with Learning Disabilities

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that people with learning disabilities should receive an annual physical health check in all settings. This check should be carried out using a standardised template, such as the Welsh health check template, and should include a review of any known or emerging challenging behaviour and how it may be linked to any physical health problems.

      The physical health review should also include a review of current health interventions, including medication and related side effects, drug interactions, and adherence. An agreed and shared care plan for managing any physical health problems, including pain, should also be developed.

      It is important to note that the annual physical health check should be carried out together with a family member, carer, healthcare professional, or social care practitioner who knows the person. This is to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care and that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately.

      In conclusion, annual physical health checks are crucial for people with learning disabilities to ensure that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately. It is important that healthcare professionals follow the recommended guidelines and carry out these checks in all settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
      She has a past history of asthma and usually takes salbutamol 100 mcg 2 puffs as required and beclomethasone 100 mcg twice a day. Her usual peak flow is 280. She has been on her current inhalers for over a year with no problems or flare-ups.Over the last two days she has become increasingly wheezy and this seems to have been triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection.
      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.5℃, and has a widespread polyphonic wheeze on auscultation of the chest. Her peak flow rate is measured at 190. Oxygen saturations are 97% in air. There is no respiratory distress.
      She receives six puffs of salbutamol via a spacer and following this feels much better, with a PEFR of 260. The child is monitored in the department for a further hour and remains stable with her chest sounding clear.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise use of salbutamol two to four puffs 4 hourly until acute infection resolved

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children

      This article discusses the appropriate management of acute asthma exacerbation in children. In cases where the exacerbation is caused by an upper respiratory tract infection, symptom control and short-term measures are crucial. Adding long-acting beta agonists or leukotriene receptor antagonists is not recommended during acute exacerbation.

      Hospital referral is not necessary if the child has no worrying features, no respiratory distress, and good oxygen saturations. However, advice on worsening should be given in case of relapse. Steroid treatment should be considered with any acute exacerbation, with oral prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg up to a maximum of 40 mg per day for three to five days.

      Doubling the inhaled beclomethasone is not the correct answer. Instead, regular use of salbutamol during the current illness should be advised to prevent relapse and improve symptoms acutely. Delivery through a spacer device should also be encouraged. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbation in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 14 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.

      Upon admission, his blood work shows:
      - Sodium: 129 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 155 µmol/L

      A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural deafness. She reports that her headaches have started recently and are accompanied by vomiting and a change in posture. Additionally, she experiences pulse synchronous tinnitus and feels that her headaches are becoming more severe.

      Upon examination, there is no papilloedema and her blood pressure is within normal limits. The patient has been taking oral contraceptive pills for the past five years.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) (to be performed within 2 weeks)

      Explanation:

      Suspected Intracranial Tumour in a Middle-Aged Woman

      The patient in question is a middle-aged woman who is showing signs of a unilateral Intracranial tumour, such as an acoustic neuroma. However, given her age, a more aggressive cerebellopontine angle tumour may be more likely. The absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of an Intracranial tumour.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access MRI or CT scan should be considered within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer. While admitting the patient as an emergency may be a practical option, adhering to NICE guidance suggests that an urgent direct access MRI is the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 16 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.

      In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.

      In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.

      On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.

      The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His daughter is healthy and in good shape. As per the NHS immunisation recommendations, when should the child be offered the flu vaccine for the first time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-3 years

      Explanation:

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a vocabulary of approximately 50 single words, some two-word phrases and many of the words can be easily understood by strangers.
      Which of the following is the most likely age range for this child if development is normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-24 months

      Explanation:

      Speech Development Milestones in Children: From 12-42 Months

      Speech development in children is a gradual process that varies from child to child. It starts with responding to sounds and progresses to babbling and saying simple words like mama and dada. By 18-24 months, children have a vocabulary of 50 or more words and can use some two-word phrases. By 24-30 months, their vocabulary expands to about 300 words, including names. Between two and three years, children can form sentences of three to five words and use pronouns, plurals, and past tense. By three to four years, they can use three to six words per sentence, ask and answer questions, and tell stories. It’s important to note that speech delay affects between 6% and 19% of children, and early detection and intervention can prevent educational, emotional, and social problems. Serious causes of delayed speech include deafness, learning disability, and autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - Out of 15 individual trials included in a meta-analysis examining the impact of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of 15 individual trials included in a meta-analysis examining the impact of beta-blockers on survival following a heart attack, two demonstrated enhanced survival while 13 did not show any advantage. However, the combined outcomes of all the trials indicated a significant decrease in mortality with beta-blockers. What is the most probable explanation for the lack of benefit observed in some trials?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The studies were too small

      Explanation:

      Common Reasons for Trials Failing to Show Benefit in Meta-Analyses

      Meta-analyses are used to combine the results of multiple studies to provide a more comprehensive understanding of a particular treatment or intervention. However, sometimes trials fail to show any benefit, even when there may be a difference between the study groups. Here are some common reasons for this:

      1. The studies were too small: Small studies may not have enough statistical power to detect a difference between treatment and control groups.

      2. Only very sick patients were chosen: Selection bias can occur if only a specific group of patients are chosen, which may not be representative of the general population.

      3. Patients were not randomly allocated between treatment and control groups: Lack of randomisation can lead to biased results and poor study design.

      4. Study dropouts: If patients who dropped out of the trials were not adequately dealt with, this can lead to a poorly designed trial and biased results.

      5. The null hypothesis is true: If the null hypothesis is true, then there is no beneficial effect from the treatment or intervention being studied. However, if a meta-analysis shows a significant reduction in mortality, then it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true.

      In conclusion, it is important to consider these factors when interpreting the results of a meta-analysis. Well-designed studies with adequate sample sizes and randomisation are more likely to provide reliable and accurate results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - Hospital episode statistics were audited and it was discovered that the length of...

    Incorrect

    • Hospital episode statistics were audited and it was discovered that the length of hospital stays for acute medical admissions is highly positively skewed. The median was found to be 4 days and the interquartile range was 2-10 days. What percentage of patients stayed between 2 and 10 days?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Statistical Percentages

      The field of statistics uses various percentages to describe and analyze data. Here are some common percentages and what they represent:

      50% – The interquartile range describes the middle 50% of values when ordered from lowest to highest.

      25% – The lower quartile has one-quarter (25%) of values below it, and the upper quartile has one-quarter of values above it.

      68% – This is the percentage of values that fall within one standard deviation of the mean in normally skewed data.

      95% – This is the percentage of values that fall within two standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.

      99.7% – This is the percentage of values that fall within three standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.

      Understanding these percentages can help in interpreting and drawing conclusions from statistical data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 25 - A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Derealisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination

      Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.

      Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.

      Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.

      Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.

      Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.

      Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 27 - A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide treatment. What is not included in the NICE guidelines for initiating or maintaining this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has failed with insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      Prior insulin use is not a requirement for patients to use exenatide.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients with acute myocardial infarction. Two groups of elderly patients are randomly assigned to either the current protocol for management or the new treatment protocol. The patients are unaware of their treatment group, but the treating clinician is aware of which group each patient belongs to. What is the best description of this experimental study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single-blind

      Explanation:

      Types of Experimental Studies

      Experimental studies can take on different forms, each with its own purpose and methodology. One important aspect of experimental studies is blinding or masking, which aims to prevent bias from influencing the results. Double-blind studies involve neither the patient nor the person performing the intervention knowing which treatment the patient has been assigned to receive. Single-blind studies, on the other hand, involve either the patient or the clinician not knowing which treatment has been randomly allocated. In a placebo-controlled study, the control group takes an inert substance (a placebo) instead of receiving no treatment.

      It is important to note that case-control studies are not a type of experimental study, but rather a type of observational study. In a case-control study, a group of individuals with a specific disease or study parameter are matched to a group of controls, and the two groups are analyzed to see if any important differences exist relating to their past. Triple-blind studies are also possible, where the patients, clinicians, and statisticians do not know which treatment patients had. Understanding the different types of experimental studies can help researchers design studies that are appropriate for their research questions and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
      Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her cervical screening outcomes....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her cervical screening outcomes. Regrettably, her last two samples have been reported as insufficient. What is the best course of action for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy within 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a woman has two consecutive inadequate samples during cervical cancer screening, she should be referred for colposcopy. This is because if the cytology results are abnormal and show high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate or severe), colposcopy should be offered within 2 weeks. For those with inadequate, borderline, or low-grade dyskaryosis (mild) results, they should receive an appointment within 6 weeks. It is not possible for the woman to return to routine recall as her samples were inadequate. Repeat hrHPV tests would only be necessary if the woman had positive hrHPV and normal cytology results.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/3) 33%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
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