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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of discharge. She mentions having a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of discharge. She mentions having a recent sexual partner without using barrier protection. During the examination, the doctor observes thick cottage-cheese-like discharge. The patient denies experiencing any other notable symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of irregular menstrual cycles. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of irregular menstrual cycles. She reports using a period tracking app on her phone, which shows that she had five periods in the past year, occurring at unpredictable intervals. During the consultation, she mentions the development of dense, dark hair on her neck and upper lip. Additionally, she has been experiencing worsening acne for a few years. If other potential causes are eliminated, what is necessary for the patient to fulfill the diagnostic criteria for her likely condition?

      Your Answer: Measurement of free testosterone levels

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis can be made clinically based on her symptoms

      Explanation:

      To diagnose PCOS, at least two out of three features must be present: oligomenorrhoea, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. In this case, the patient has oligomenorrhoea and clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, making a clinical diagnosis of PCOS likely. However, NICE guidelines recommend ruling out other potential causes of menstrual disturbance before confirming the diagnosis. BMI measurement is not necessary for diagnosis, although obesity is a common feature of PCOS. Testing for free or total testosterone levels is also not essential if clinical signs of hyperandrogenism are present.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days ago. She is concerned about the possibility of getting pregnant as she is not using any form of contraception. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma and major depression, and is currently taking sertraline 25mg once daily, salbutamol inhaler 200 micrograms as needed, beclomethasone 400 micrograms twice daily, and formoterol 12 micrograms twice daily. She is currently on day 26 of a 35-day menstrual cycle. What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intra-uterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result came back as inadequate. It was noted in her medical history that she had an inadequate smear 4 years ago but subsequent smears were fine. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear is inadequate, it is recommended to repeat the test within 3 months. This is the correct course of action for the patient in question, as her routine smear was deemed inadequate. Referral for colposcopy is not necessary at this stage, as it is only indicated if there are two consecutive inadequate smears that are 3 months apart. Waiting for 3 years to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as this is the interval for routine recall for a patient of her age. Similarly, waiting for 6 or 12 months to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as these timeframes are only indicated for specific circumstances such as testing for cure following treatment or if the most recent smear was hrHPV positive without cytological abnormalities.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a history of asthma and cannot take ibuprofen due to a previous severe asthma attack triggered by the medication. An ultrasound scan reveals no pelvic pathology. What would be an appropriate treatment for her dysmenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Dysmenorrhoea: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Primary dysmenorrhoea is a common condition that affects many women of reproductive age. When treating this condition, healthcare professionals have several options to consider. Here, we will discuss the most common treatments and their appropriateness for different patients.

      Paracetamol is a suitable first-line treatment for patients with primary dysmenorrhoea who cannot take NSAIDs. If the patient does not wish to conceive, a hormonal contraceptive may also be considered as a first-line treatment.

      Gabapentin is not recommended for the treatment of dysmenorrhoea, as it is primarily used for epilepsy and neuropathic pain.

      Mefenamic acid and naproxen are both NSAIDs and are recommended as first-line treatments for primary dysmenorrhoea. However, they are contraindicated in patients with a history of asthma triggered by NSAID use.

      Oral morphine is not typically used as a first-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea. If NSAIDs and paracetamol are not effective, transelectrical nerve stimulation (TENS) may be trialled. If none of these treatments are effective within 3-6 months, the patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for further assessment.

      In summary, healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s medical history and preferences when selecting a treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea. Paracetamol and hormonal contraceptives are suitable first-line treatments, while NSAIDs and TENS may also be effective in some patients. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if initial treatments are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.

      During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent laparotomy and cyst removal

      Correct Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst

      Explanation:

      When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various HRT options.
      What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different types of HRT preparations?

      Your Answer: Combined HRT decreases the risk of breast cancer

      Correct Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The addition of progesterone to HRT increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer, but this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after HRT is discontinued. However, it does not affect the risk of dying from breast cancer. HRT with only oestrogen is linked to a lower risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has a minimal or no impact on CHD risk. progesterone-only HRT is not available. NICE does not provide a specific risk assessment for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, but refers to a meta-analysis indicating an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of pregnancy and reports feeling fine a few hours later. What is the most frequent risk associated with a TOP?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      This condition is rare, but it is more common in pregnancies that have exceeded 20 weeks of gestation.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old obese woman presents with a gradual onset of severe hirsutism and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese woman presents with a gradual onset of severe hirsutism and clitoral enlargement. Her voice is deepened, and she has recently noted abnormal vaginal bleeding. Her last menses was three years ago. Her medical history is remarkable for type II diabetes mellitus diagnosed at the age of 45. She is being treated with metformin and glibenclamide. Serum androstenedione and testosterone concentrations are elevated. Ultrasound shows bilaterally enlarged, solid-appearing ovaries without cyst. A simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia is found on biopsy.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adrenal tumour

      Correct Answer: Ovarian stromal hyperthecosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Stromal Hyperthecosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Ovarian stromal hyperthecosis is a condition characterized by the proliferation of ovarian stroma and clusters of luteinizing cells throughout the ovarian stroma. This results in increased secretion of androstenedione and testosterone, leading to hirsutism and virilism. In obese patients, the conversion of androgen to estrogen in peripheral adipose tissue can cause a hyperestrogenic state, which may lead to endometrial hyperplasia and abnormal uterine bleeding. Treatment for premenopausal women is similar to that for polycystic ovary syndrome, while bilateral oophorectomy is preferred for postmenopausal women.

      Differential diagnosis for virilization symptoms includes adrenal tumor, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, polycystic ovary cyst, and theca lutein cyst. Adrenal tumors may present with additional symptoms such as easy bruising, hypertension, and hypokalemia. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors are unilateral and more common in women in their second and third decades of life. Polycystic ovary syndrome is limited to premenopausal women, while theca lutein cysts do not cause virilization and can be seen on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer: Stop the pill on the day of surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Correct Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?

      Your Answer: >80ml total blood loss per menses

      Correct Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive

      Explanation:

      The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test within 3 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 35–45 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2 and has had persistent acne since being a teenager.
      During examination, brown, hyperpigmented areas are observed in the creases of the axillae and around the neck.
      Hormone levels have been tested, as shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Total testosterone 7 nmol/l 0.5–3.5 nmol/l
      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 15 IU/l 1–25 IU/l
      Luteinising hormone (LH) 78 U/l 1–70 U/l
      Which of the following ultrasound findings will confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 12 follicles per ovary, each 1 mm in size

      Correct Answer: 12 follicles in the right ovary and seven follicles in the left, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by menstrual irregularities, signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries. The Rotterdam criteria provide diagnostic criteria for PCOS, which include oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries.

      Follicle counts and ovarian volume are important ultrasonographic features used to diagnose PCOS. At least 12 follicles in one ovary, measuring 2-9 mm in diameter, and an ovarian volume of >10 ml are diagnostic of PCOS. However, the absence of these features does not exclude the diagnosis if two of the three criteria are met.

      Total testosterone levels are usually raised in PCOS, while FSH is usually within the normal range or low, and LH is raised. The ratio of LH:FSH is usually >3:1 in PCOS.

      A single complex cyst in one ovary is an abnormal finding and requires referral to a gynaecology team for further assessment.

      Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria and Ultrasonographic Features of PCOS

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain in the left iliac fossa and nausea that started a day ago. She reports vomiting once but denies any other symptoms. The patient has a menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period began 5 days ago. She is sexually active and has consistently used condoms for contraception. There is no vaginal bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is ovarian torsion, which is common in women of reproductive age. Symptoms include pain in the iliac fossa that can spread to the loin, groin, or back, as well as nausea and vomiting. An adnexal mass may be present on examination, which is often caused by an ovarian cyst or neoplasm that has disrupted the ovary’s normal position and caused torsion. In some cases, a low-grade fever may also be present if ovarian necrosis has occurred.

      It is important to rule out ectopic pregnancy as a differential diagnosis, which can be done with a pregnancy test regardless of reported contraception. Vaginal bleeding may help differentiate between the two conditions. However, since the patient’s menstrual period started 7 days ago and she uses condoms for contraception, ectopic pregnancy is less likely than ovarian torsion.

      Appendicitis is also a possible cause of this presentation, but it typically presents with diffuse abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa. In appendicitis, pain can be reproduced in the right iliac fossa by palpating the left iliac fossa (Rovsing’s sign), but left iliac fossa pain would not be the presenting symptom.

      Mittelschmerz, which is mild pain in the right iliac fossa, could also be a possible cause, but it would not be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women

      Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.

      Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.

      Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.

      In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history of irregular periods with a cycle ranging from 25-39 days long and has missed a whole cycle before. She is concerned about the potential impact on her future fertility. The patient denies being sexually active and has no syndromic features on examination. There is no significant acne or excess body hair. She has a BMI of 20 kg/m² and is currently training for a half marathon. What is the probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Primary ovarian failure

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Secondary amenorrhoea is a common issue in highly athletic women, often caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism. This is the case for a young woman who is training for a marathon and has experienced oligomenorrhoea in the past. When a woman’s body has low levels of fat, the hypothalamus releases less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, leading to hypogonadism. This is believed to occur because very low-fat levels are not conducive to successful pregnancy in females.

      While an ultrasound may reveal many cysts on the ovaries, this woman does not meet the Rotterdam criteria for a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Although she experiences oligomenorrhoea, she does not exhibit signs of hyperandrogenism and has a lower-normal weight. It is also possible that she is pregnant, and a urine or serum pregnancy test should be conducted to rule out this possibility, even if she claims not to be sexually active.

      While primary ovarian failure is a potential cause, it is not the most likely explanation in this case. However, it should still be investigated with gonadotrophins. If ovarian failure is present, gonadotrophin levels will be elevated, indicating that the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are not providing negative feedback on hormone release.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing a medical abortion. She has concerns that the procedure may not have been successful as her home pregnancy test still shows a positive result. What is the expected timeframe for the pregnancy test to become negative if the abortion was effective?

      Your Answer: Negative 2 weeks from today

      Explanation:

      After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. If the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it may indicate an incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast. In this case, the correct answer to when the pregnancy test should be negative is 2 weeks from now, as the termination occurred 2 weeks ago. A negative result one week ago is not relevant, and 4 weeks from today or 8 weeks from today are both incorrect as they fall outside of the 4-week window.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Wide local excision

      Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

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  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. She reports having a consistent menstrual cycle and no significant medical or gynaecological history. During the examination, the physician observes a retroverted uterus that is immobile. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The symptoms experienced by the patient in this case suggest the presence of intra-pelvic pathology, including a retroverted uterus and age-related factors. Chlamydia infection is often asymptomatic and does not typically cause dysmenorrhoea, although dyspareunia may occur. Lower abdominal pain may be caused by ovarian cysts, while ectopic pregnancy is associated with amenorrhoea and lower abdominal pain.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman who was born and lives in England has received her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who was born and lives in England has received her invitation to attend for her first cervical screening test. She has read the leaflet and has some questions regarding the population targeted for cervical screening.
      Which of the following statements best applies to the cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: Cervical screening is offered to women aged 25–64 every five years

      Correct Answer: Cervical screening is offered to women aged 50–64 every five years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cervical Screening: Guidelines and Options

      Cervical screening, also known as a smear test, is a vital tool in detecting precancerous cell changes in the cervix and preventing cervical cancer. Here are some important guidelines and options to keep in mind:

      Age and Frequency: In the UK, women aged 25-64 are invited for screening, with those aged 25-49 screened every three years and those aged 50-64 screened every five years. In Scotland, screening is recommended every five years for women aged 25-65.

      Hysterectomy: Women who have had a total hysterectomy (removal of the uterus and cervix) do not require cervical screening. However, those who have had a partial hysterectomy (removal of the uterus but not the cervix) should continue to be screened according to age guidelines.

      Age Limit: Women over the age of 65 may still be eligible for screening if they have had recent abnormal results or have not been screened since the age of 50.

      Opting Out: While cervical screening is not obligatory, it is highly recommended. Patients can opt out by speaking to their doctor and signing an ‘opting out’ form, but this decision can be reversed at any time. It is important to understand the benefits and risks associated with screening before making a decision.

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  • Question 20 - You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about...

    Incorrect

    • You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.

      What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?

      Your Answer: Change patch weekly without breaks

      Correct Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for backup contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption eliminates the need for extra precautions during episodes of vomiting or diarrhea. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraceptive use followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain. The pain is sharp and constant, with a rating of 10/10, and is spreading to her lower back. She is unable to lie still due to the pain. She is experiencing nausea but has not vomited. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago and was normal, and her menstrual cycle is always regular.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, and temperature is 37.3 °C. There is tenderness in the periumbilical and right lower quadrant upon palpation. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a significant amount of free pelvic fluid.

      What is the most likely organ or structure that is injured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ovary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Sudden Pelvic Pain: A Differential Diagnosis

      Sudden pelvic pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest ovarian torsion, a condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its blood supply, causing ischemia and infarction. The resulting pain is severe, sharp, and sudden, often accompanied by tenderness and internal bleeding. However, other possible causes of sudden pelvic pain should also be considered.

      Rectal diseases or trauma are unlikely to explain the patient’s current presentation. Similarly, while appendicitis can cause abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and anorexia, the pattern of pain is different, starting as dull pain around the belly button and becoming sharp and localized to the right lower quadrant over time. Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant, is often positive in appendicitis.

      A ureteral stone can also cause sudden-onset pelvic and flank pain, but it is not associated with pelvic bleeding. Urinary tract stones typically cause colicky pain, which comes and goes in waves, rather than the unrelenting pain described by the patient.

      Finally, a ruptured Fallopian tube can be a complication of an ectopic pregnancy, but the patient’s recent normal menstrual periods make this diagnosis less likely. In ectopic tubal pregnancy, the patient usually complains of amenorrhea, abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic pain of several days to weeks’ duration.

      In summary, while ovarian torsion is a possible cause of the patient’s sudden pelvic pain, other conditions should also be considered and ruled out through further evaluation and testing.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge that she has noticed over the past few days. The discharge is yellow in colour and is accompanied by vulval itching. She has had protected sexual intercourse three times in the past six months and is not currently in a committed relationship. Upon investigation, her vaginal pH is found to be 6.0 and ovoid mobile parasites are observed on a wet saline mount. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between common vaginal infections: Trichomoniasis, Bacterial Vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma Genitalium

      When a woman presents with an elevated vaginal pH, a fish-smelling, yellow vaginal discharge, and ovoid trichomonads, the diagnosis of trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) is strongly supported. A wet saline mount or anaerobic culture can confirm the diagnosis, with culture being particularly useful in men. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for seven days or a single 2g dose, and sexual partners should also be treated to prevent re-infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis is a differential diagnosis to consider, as it also presents with a fish-smelling discharge and a pH > 4.5. However, the presence of ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount suggests trichomoniasis as the more likely diagnosis. Bacterial vaginosis would show clue cells on wet saline mount.

      gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections that are more likely to be seen in patients with a history of unprotected sex. However, fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of either infection. A specimen culture of gonorrhoeae would show Gram-negative diplococci, while chlamydia would not show ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount.

      Mycoplasma genitalium is another potential sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis, discharge, cervicitis, or endometritis in women. However, the wet saline mount results suggest that this is not the diagnosis, and fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of this infection.

      In summary, a combination of clinical presentation, wet saline mount, and culture can help distinguish between common vaginal infections such as trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, chlamydia, and mycoplasma genitalium.

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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling of fullness in her vagina. She states that this feeling is present at all times. On further questioning she also has a 1-year history of urinary frequency and has been treated for urinary tract infections in two instances in the past year. She has never smoked and is teetotal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystocele

      Explanation:

      Common Vaginal Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Cystocele: A weakening of pelvic muscles can cause the bladder to prolapse into the vagina, resulting in stress incontinence, frequent urinary tract infections, and a dragging sensation or lump in the vagina. Management ranges from conservative with pelvic floor exercises to surgery.

      Rectocele: Women with a rectocele experience pressure and a lump in the vagina, as well as difficulty with bowel movements. Treatment may involve pelvic floor exercises or surgery.

      Bartholin cyst: A blocked Bartholin gland can lead to a cyst that presents as a tender mass in the vaginal wall. Treatment involves incision and drainage, as well as antibiotics.

      Vaginal cancer: Symptoms include vaginal or postcoital bleeding, vaginal discharge, and persistent pelvic pain.

      Bladder cancer: Painless hematuria is a common symptom, with risk factors including smoking, working in the aniline dye industry, or previous infection with Schistosoma haematobium.

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  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following an uncomplicated delivery. The medical team discusses contraception options with her before she leaves. The patient had previously been taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and wishes to resume this medication.

      The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19 kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.

      What is the appropriate time frame for the patient to safely restart her medication?

      Your Answer: She can restart after 48 hours

      Correct Answer: She can restart after 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient should not restart the COCP within the first 21 days after giving birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. However, since the patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risk factors for thromboembolic disease, she can safely restart the pill at 3 weeks postpartum. Restarting at any other time before the 21-day mark is not recommended.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 25 - What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Lymphadenectomy in early stage disease is usually beneficial

      Correct Answer: Most patients present with stage 1 disease, and are therefore amenable to surgery alone

      Explanation:

      1. The initial stage of endometrial cancer typically involves a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
      2. Diagnosis of endometrial cancer requires an endometrial biopsy.
      3. Radiotherapy is the preferred treatment over chemotherapy, especially for high-risk patients after a hysterectomy or in cases of pelvic recurrence.
      4. Lymphadenectomy is not typically recommended as a routine procedure.
      5. Progestogens are no longer commonly used in the treatment of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 26 - A prospective study is designed to compare the risks and benefits of combined...

    Correct

    • A prospective study is designed to compare the risks and benefits of combined oestrogen and progesterone replacement therapy versus oestrogen-only replacement therapy in patients aged < 55 years, who are within 10 years of their menopause. One group of women will receive systemic oestrogen and progesterone for 4 years (HRT group) and the second group will receive the same systemic dose of oestrogen (without progesterone) for the same period (ERT group). The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is placed in women of the second group to counterbalance the effect of systemic oestrogen on the endometrium. The study will only include women who have not undergone a hysterectomy.
      Which one of the following outcomes is most likely to be observed at the end of this study?

      Your Answer: The HRT group will most likely have a higher rate of breast cancer, compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Risks and Benefits

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and Estrogen Replacement Therapy (ERT) are commonly used to alleviate symptoms of menopause, such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness. However, these treatments come with potential risks and benefits that should be carefully considered.

      One of the main concerns with HRT is the increased risk of breast cancer, particularly with combined estrogen and progesterone therapy. The absolute risk is small, but it is important to discuss this with a healthcare provider. On the other hand, HRT and ERT have been shown to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and bone fractures.

      Another potential risk of HRT and ERT is an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, the risk may be lower with HRT compared to ERT. Additionally, both treatments have been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in women under 60.

      Oestrogen replacement therapy (without progesterone) may reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases, but it is important to note that the risk of breast cancer may not be significantly altered.

      Overall, the decision to use HRT or ERT should be based on an individual’s symptoms, medical history, and potential risks and benefits. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider and make an informed decision.

      Weighing the Risks and Benefits of Hormone Replacement Therapy

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her that the result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and schedules a follow-up smear in 12 months. At the second smear, the same result is obtained, and the GP schedules another follow-up smear in 12 months. However, at the third smear (now 37 years old), the hrHPV result is negative. The patient has no significant medical or family history.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear in 12 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 3 years

      Explanation:

      The correct course of action for a patient who has a second repeat smear at 24 months that is hrHPV negative is to return to routine recall in 3 years. If the result had been positive, the patient would need to be recalled in 12 months for a repeat smear. Referring for colposcopy would only be necessary if the patient had tested positive for hrHPV. Repeating the smear in 3 months or 12 months would also be incorrect, as the patient has already had two smears and the third result will determine the next course of action. Repeating the smear in 5 years would only be appropriate for older women during routine screening.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She is seeking emergency contraception as she forgot to take her progesterone-only pill for a few days before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the nearby sexual health clinic for proper screening. After counseling, the doctor prescribes levonorgestrel to the woman. What is the waiting period before she can resume taking her POP?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it is recommended to wait for 5 days or use barrier methods before resuming hormonal contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old woman was worried about the possibility of being pregnant after having...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman was worried about the possibility of being pregnant after having unprotected sex two weeks after the end of her last menstrual cycle. She skipped her next period, and now, two months after the sexual encounter, she purchases a home pregnancy test kit.
      What is the hormone in the urine that the colorimetric assay in these test kits identifies?

      Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) subunit β

      Explanation:

      Hormones Involved in Pregnancy Testing

      Pregnancy testing relies on the detection of specific hormones in the body. One such hormone is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of a developing embryo after implantation in the uterus. The unique subunit of hCG, β, is targeted by antibodies in blood and urine tests, allowing for early detection of pregnancy. Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) also play important roles in female reproductive function, but are not measured in over-the-counter pregnancy tests. Progesterone, while important in pregnancy, is not specific to it and therefore not useful in diagnosis. The hCG subunit α is shared with other hormones and is not specific to pregnancy testing.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
      Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:

      Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
      Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.

      2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
      Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.

      3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
      Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.

      4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
      Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.

      5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
      Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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