-
Question 1
Correct
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Question 3
Correct
-
While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?
Your Answer: Urinary
Explanation:Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer: 1st
Explanation:Trigeminal nerve has three divisions, the first is the ophthalmic division that does not originate from any of the pharyngeal arches, the second and third divisions, namely, the maxillary and the mandibular region develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
Pharyngeal Arches:
1st = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V)
2nd = Facial (CN VII)
3rd = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
4th and 6th = Vagus (CN X) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
All of the following statements are true about Androgen insensitivity syndrome except:
Your Answer: The chromosomal sex is 46XX
Explanation:Patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome have 46XY chromosomes. Due to insensitivity to androgens, they have female characteristics e.g. scant pubic or body hairs, enlarged mammary glands, and a small penis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:
Your Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension
Explanation:Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:
Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
When does Oocytogenesis complete?
Your Answer: Birth
Explanation:During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?
Your Answer: High pituitary gonadotropin titre
Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?
Your Answer: The Mullerian system develops into external genitalia
Correct Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males
Explanation:Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:
Your Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby
Explanation:Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?
Your Answer: There are usually normal testes
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts
Explanation:A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?
Your Answer: 1st
Explanation:The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?
Your Answer: 5-Jul
Explanation:Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?
Your Answer: 4 days
Correct Answer: 5 days
Explanation:Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?
Your Answer: Are usually less than 5 feet tall
Correct Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant
Explanation:Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
Explanation:Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
All of the following complications can be found in a pregnant patient with a bicornuate uterus, except?
Your Answer: Polyhydramnios
Explanation:Women with a bicornuate uterus are at increased risk of recurrent abortions, premature birth, fetal malpositioning, placenta previa and retained products of placenta leading to post partum haemorrhage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Turner's syndrome is characterised by :
Your Answer: Streak ovaries
Explanation:Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
In fetal circulation:
Your Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium
Explanation:Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer: Ductus Venosus
Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: At term the placenta receives 70% of uterine blood flow
Explanation:The placenta is important for regulating feto-maternal blood circulation, ensuring that the two circulatory systems do not come into direct contact. The placenta receives 70-80% of the uterine blood flow into the decidual spiral arteries where nutrient, waste and gaseous exchange with fetal blood takes place via the villous core fetal vessels. Deoxygenated blood arrives at the placenta via two uterine arteries while oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood is circulated back to the foetus via a single umbilical vein. The pressure in the umbilical vein is about 20 mmHg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Primary amenorrhea
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?
Your Answer: PGE2
Explanation:Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
Regarding fertilization & implantation:
Your Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside
Explanation:During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
