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Question 1
Correct
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You are working in an area with 65% adult flu vaccine uptake. There has been an outbreak of influenza in the local community. The regional public health body wants to investigate the incident further and identify the most likely events which spread the disease.
What study design is most appropriate?Your Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:The most appropriate study design for investigating an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This is because it allows for a retrospective comparison of groups, such as those who attended an indoor trampolining event versus a family picnic, to determine the increased odds of contracting the disease, such as measles. Cohort studies are not suitable as they are prospective, while this study requires a retrospective approach. Cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of the disease prevalence but do not provide strong evidence links like a case-control study. Meta-analyses are not appropriate as they pool data from multiple studies, while this study aims to investigate something for the first time in a local population.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Correct
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A random selection of 800 adults over the age of 60 agree to participate in a study of the possible effects of drug Y.
They are followed prospectively for a period of ten years to see if there is an association between the incidence of osteoporosis and the use of drug Y.
Which type of study is described here?Your Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:Types of Epidemiological Studies
Cohort studies, also known as longitudinal studies, involve the follow-up of individuals over a defined period of time. Prospective cohort studies follow individuals who are exposed and not exposed to a putative risk factor, and their disease experience is compared at the end of the follow-up period. Historical cohort studies, on the other hand, identify a cohort for whom records of exposure status are available from the past, and their disease experience is measured after a substantial period of time has elapsed since exposure.
Case-control studies, on the other hand, compare patients who have the disease with those who do not have the disease and look retrospectively at their exposure to risk factors. Cross-over studies are similar to longitudinal studies, but the interventions given to each group are crossed over at a set time in the trial design. Finally, cross-sectional studies analyze data at a certain point in time of a certain population.
One of the best studies for statistical significance is the randomized controlled clinical trial. Understanding the different types of epidemiological studies is crucial in designing and conducting research that can provide valuable insights into the causes and prevention of diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 3
Correct
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A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?
Your Answer: 80%
Explanation:To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.
Definitions
- Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.
Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)
Data from the Study
- Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
- True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
- False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10
Calculation of Sensitivity
Using the formula for sensitivity:
Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)
Sensitivity=40/(40+10)
Sensitivity=40/50
Sensitivity=0.8
Sensitivity=0.8×100=80%
Conclusion
The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.
- Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.
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Question 4
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You are assessing a patient who has recently been evaluated by the community respiratory team for long term oxygen therapy. She is an elderly patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a Pa02 of 6.9 kPa in air.
According to the available evidence, what minimum daily duration of oxygen use has been shown to significantly reduce mortality in elderly patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a Pa02 of 6.9 kPa in air?Your Answer: 15 hours
Explanation:Long Term Oxygen Therapy Trials
There have been two trials conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of long term oxygen therapy (LTOT). The MRC trial involved administering oxygen to patients to increase their Pa02 to 8 kPa for at least 15 hours a day. The results showed that after three years of treatment, the LTOT group had a significantly better survival rate and reduced mortality compared to the conventionally treated group.
The NOTT trial, on the other hand, compared the effects of 12 and 24 hours of LTOT. The trial was stopped early due to the better survival rate observed in the group receiving 24-hour treatment. Based on the available trial data, it has been shown that the minimum daily duration of oxygen use that is beneficial is 15 hours.
In summary, these trials provide evidence for the effectiveness of LTOT in improving survival rates and reducing mortality in patients. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider the duration of oxygen therapy when treating patients with chronic respiratory conditions.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the term for a drug that has its own effects but doesn't treat the condition it is prescribed for?
Your Answer: A non-specific placebo
Correct Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies has been developed known as the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). The test is hoped to be an improvement on the previous stool tests as the FIT targets human haemoglobin.
The researchers would like to determine the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in a study involving 3000 participants aged 50 and above. All participants undergo a FIT and are subsequently evaluated with colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard test.
Out of the 1200 participants who tested positive on the FIT, 800 were later confirmed to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.
On the other hand, out of the 1800 participants who tested negative on the FIT, 100 were later found to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.
What is the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in this study?Your Answer: 91.90%
Correct Answer: 95%
Explanation:The specificity of the test is 0.95 or 95%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is curious about a study testing a new antihypertensive medication. You inform them that the drug has undergone testing on several volunteers, but has not yet been approved for sale. The manufacturers are currently seeking patients to compare the effectiveness of this new drug to existing antihypertensives before it can be licensed and prescribed by all doctors.
In which phase of the drug trial are you seeking patients for recruitment?Your Answer: Phase 2
Correct Answer: Phase 3
Explanation:Phase 3 trials involve larger studies conducted on real patients, where the effectiveness of a new treatment is compared to existing treatments.
To elaborate, phase 1 trials typically involve testing a drug on a small group of healthy individuals to assess its pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and dosage. Phase 2 trials involve testing the drug on actual patients with the condition it is intended to treat, to evaluate its efficacy and potential side effects.
In phase 3 trials, the new treatment is compared to existing treatments, which requires a much larger sample size than phase 1 and 2 trials. Phase 4 trials involve ongoing observation after the treatment has been approved for sale, to monitor any long-term effects.
There is no such thing as phase 5 trials.
Stages of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.
Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.
Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.
If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.
In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment for osteoporosis in elderly patients.
A recently performed randomised control trial has looked at using the new treatment in preventing vertebral fractures in patients over 70 years old. They leave you a copy of a study for you to read in more detail.
On reading the paper, you see that there were 8,000 patients in both the treatment and control arms of the study. The number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the treatment arm was 200 and the number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the control arm was 250.
What is the number needed to treat with the new drug in order to prevent one vertebral fracture in elderly patients over 70 years old?Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 200
Explanation:Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a useful measure in determining the effectiveness of a treatment. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one additional event, such as a disease or complication. This takes into account the absolute risk of the event, making it a clinically meaningful way of comparing different interventions.
To calculate the NNT, we first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR). This is done by subtracting the absolute risk of events in the control group from the absolute risk of events in the treatment group. For example, if 350 out of 10,000 patients in the control group sustained a vertebral fracture (3.5%), and 300 out of 10,000 patients in the treatment group sustained a vertebral fracture (3%), the ARR would be 0.5%.
The NNT is then calculated by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. In this case, the NNT would be 1/0.5% = 200. This means that 200 patients would need to be treated with the new drug to prevent one vertebral fracture. Understanding the NNT can help clinicians make informed decisions about the most effective treatment options for their patients.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Correct
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A study examines the likelihood of experiencing a heart attack (MI) in patients with established ischemic heart disease. Group A receives conventional treatment. After 7 years, 30 out of 150 patients have had an MI. Group B receives standard treatment plus a novel cardiac medication. After 7 years, 15 out of 90 patients have had an MI. What is the odds ratio of having an MI while taking the new drug compared to those who do not?
Your Answer: 0.8
Explanation:Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among the 8950 participants diagnosed with prostate cancer through histological examination, 8900 had a positive test outcome. Meanwhile, 13,750 healthy participants had a positive screening result. What is the specificity of this novel screening tool?
Your Answer: 99.80%
Correct Answer: 68.70%
Explanation:To calculate specificity, we need to use a 2*2 table with the following values for a sample size of 11,000 participants:
Disease Healthy
Positive TP=8900 FP=13750
Negative FN=50 TN=30120Specificity is the probability of getting a negative test result when the person is healthy/doesn’t have the screened disease. We can calculate specificity using the formula:
Specificity = TN / (TN+FP)
Plugging in the values from our table, we get:
Specificity = 30120 / (30120 + 13750) =
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town in England, with England and Wales as the comparison standard?
Your Answer: The town's SMR of 125 is a percentage figure
Correct Answer: The town has 25% more deaths than expected if age specific death rates for England and Wales are applied to the population
Explanation:Understanding Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)
To compare mortality rates in different populations, we use the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR). This ratio compares the observed deaths in a study population to the number of deaths that would be expected if the standard population’s age-specific mortality rates were applied. The result is multiplied by 100 for convenience, but SMR is not a rate or percentage. An SMR of 100 means the study population has the same number of deaths as expected by national standards. A value less than 100 indicates fewer observed deaths than expected, while a value greater than 100 indicates more observed deaths than expected.
The SMR is useful for comparing different towns, cities, or districts, as well as certain groups like social classes. It can also be used for serial comparisons over several years. The data used to calculate SMR is age-standardized, so it corrects for differences in age structures between populations. This means that the crude death rate, which doesn’t use age-specific data, may not necessarily be higher in the study population. Age-specific data is crucial in correcting for differences in age structures and allows for more accurate comparisons of mortality rates.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for bowel cancer?
Your Answer: Low levels of vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Moderate alcohol consumption
Explanation:According to Cancer Research UK, there are certain factors that are not associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. These include fish consumption, low B12 levels, milk consumption, and selenium consumption. However, it is important to note that alcohol consumption, even at moderate levels, is associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. Therefore, it is recommended to limit alcohol intake to reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer. By being aware of these factors, individuals can make informed choices about their diet and lifestyle to help reduce their risk of bowel cancer.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular surgeons comparing a specific carotid surgery technique to another operation?
Your Answer: Standardised mortality ratio
Correct Answer: Efficacy
Explanation:The Importance of Sham Surgery in Clinical Trials
Sham surgery, also known as placebo surgery, is a simulated surgical procedure that excludes the step believed to be therapeutically necessary. In clinical trials of surgical interventions, sham surgery serves as a crucial scientific control.
An experienced group of vascular surgeons conducted a study on the effectiveness of sham surgery in carotid surgery. However, it has been challenging to prove its usefulness outside areas of expertise. It is often difficult to generalize the findings of a study group to everyday practice.
Efficacy refers to the effect of something under ideal or laboratory conditions. It is important to note that this study did not comment on mortality rates. Overall, sham surgery plays a vital role in clinical trials and helps ensure the validity of surgical interventions.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of pacifiers in toddlers is associated with sleep disturbances. What study design would be most suitable for this inquiry?
Your Answer: Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control design is more suitable for studying sudden infant death syndrome due to its low incidence compared to a cohort study. This design compares a group with the disease to a group without, analyzing their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Correct
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A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.
Which value is this referring to?Your Answer: Power
Explanation:The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:
Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950
What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing
Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol) and those without impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c <42 mmol/mol). The participants who agree to take part are requested to maintain a food journal for two weeks. The researcher is worried that the participants' eating habits during this observed period may deviate from their regular routine, impacting the accuracy of the study.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer: Observer bias
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:The Hawthorne effect refers to a situation where a group alters its behavior because it is aware of being observed. This could manifest in participants in a study eating more healthily during the observation period. A ceiling effect occurs when an independent variable no longer has an impact on a dependent variable because the maximum effect has been reached. Observer bias occurs when a researcher records information that differs from reality due to their expectations or desires. The Gibbons-Hawking effect is a theory of general relativity that may be better suited for discussion in a different forum.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A clinical trial is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of a new oral medication in improving the symptoms of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The trial involves 400 patients aged 50 and above, with 200 patients receiving the new medication and the other 200 receiving a placebo. After six months, the patients are asked to rate their symptoms using a five-point scale: much improved, slightly improved, no change, slightly worsened, significantly worse. What statistical test would be most appropriate to determine whether the new medication is effective?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:It should be noted that the outcome measure doesn’t follow a normal distribution, making it non-parametric. Therefore, the Student’s t-tests cannot be used. Additionally, since we are not comparing percentages or proportions, the chi-squared test is also not applicable.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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Question 19
Correct
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You are evaluating a recent research on the advantages of omega-3 fish oils in individuals with confirmed ischemic heart disease. What is the significance of the study's power?
Your Answer: #NAME?
Explanation:The probability of a type II error is subtracted from 1 to obtain the power.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?
Your Answer: Patients with antisocial personality disorder have a significantly increased mortality rate
Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant
Explanation:The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.
Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio
The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.
An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Correct
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A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart attack in a year from 15% in patients treated with conventional treatment to 10% in patients treated with conventional treatment plus the new agent.
The cost of this new drug is £150 per month.
How much extra would a hospital need to spend over the course of a year to prevent one heart attack?Your Answer: £30,000
Explanation:Calculation of Cost to Prevent Stroke
The calculation of the cost to prevent a stroke involves determining the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. In this case, the absolute risk reduction is 4%, which means that 25 patients would need to be treated to prevent one stroke. Assuming a cost of £100 per month for 12 months, the total cost to prevent a stroke would be £30,000. This calculation is important for healthcare providers and policymakers to consider when making decisions about the allocation of resources for stroke prevention.
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new serological marker for diabetes was evaluated against the standard test of fasting blood glucose levels. The results are as follows:
Test positive Test negative
Blood glucose high 80 20
Blood glucose normal 120 730
What is the sensitivity of this test?Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing
Sensitivity and specificity are important measures in medical testing. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a person with a disease will be correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the probability that a person without the disease will be correctly identified as negative by the test.
In a study with 50 subjects who have the disease, 40 were correctly identified by the test, resulting in a sensitivity of 80%. On the other hand, out of 900 subjects without the disease, 840 were correctly identified as negative by the test, giving a specificity of 93%.
To better understand these measures, a table can be used to illustrate the results. The true positives (people with the disease who were correctly identified) and true negatives (people without the disease who were correctly identified as negative) are located in the diagonal cells of the table. False positives (people without the disease who were incorrectly identified as positive) and false negatives (people with the disease who were incorrectly identified as negative) are located in the off-diagonal cells.
Overall, sensitivity and specificity are important factors to consider when evaluating the accuracy of medical tests.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on detection rates for the disease among teenagers at the clinic.
The research is designed to look merely at detection rates, not the effectiveness of treatment.
Which of the following is true with respect to rules around ethical approval and consent for this project?Your Answer: Patient participants need not receive a patient information leaflet
Correct Answer: You should have a clear publication plan at the outset of your study
Explanation:Importance of a Clear Publication Plan for Clinical Studies
A clear publication plan is essential for any clinical study. The study should be worthy of publication in some form, whether it is a local CCG journal or a peer-reviewed international publication. The research should provide learning outcomes that can improve clinical practice, and without publication, wider dissemination is impossible.
It is crucial to ensure that all staff involved in the study are aware of good medical practice, and patients should be provided with an information leaflet about the study. If the study is conducted in multiple areas, MREC approval means that the study can proceed without a separate full LREC application.
In summary, having a clear publication plan is crucial for any clinical study to ensure that the research findings are disseminated widely and can contribute to improving clinical practice.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An intercalating medical student conducts a retrospective cohort study examining the association between socioeconomic status and mortality in elderly medical inpatients. The study finds there to be no association and the student's supervisor therefore suggests that the study should not be published because clinicians would not be interested in the result.
What is the name given to this form of bias?Your Answer: Observer bias
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:When evaluating research articles, it is crucial to be aware of various biases and assess whether they have been minimized. If an article exhibits bias, its results may not be reliable. Some types of bias include response bias, where those who participate in a study may not accurately represent the population; observer bias, where the outcome may be influenced by the observer’s subjectivity; publication bias, where studies with negative findings are less likely to be published; and recall bias, where patients may more easily remember exposures they believe are linked to the outcome.
Detecting Publication Bias with Funnel Plots
Publication bias is a common issue in research where only studies with positive results are published, leading to biased overall results. To detect publication bias, graphical methods such as funnel plots and Galbraith plots can be used.
Among these methods, the funnel plot is the most commonly used and important for exams. A funnel plot is a scatter graph used to check for publication bias in systematic reviews and meta-analyses. It provides a visual representation of the weight of published literature, ensuring that all studies are evenly represented.
An asymmetrical, inverted funnel shape in a funnel plot indicates that publication bias is unlikely. However, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, suggesting either publication bias or a systematic difference between smaller and larger studies known as small study effects. Therefore, funnel plots are a valuable tool for detecting publication bias and ensuring unbiased research results.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following methods of economic evaluation utilize the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER)?
Your Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Inputs in Economic Evaluation Studies
In economic evaluation studies, inputs refer to the resources used in delivering a healthcare intervention. There are three main types of costs associated with these inputs: direct, indirect, and intangible costs. Direct costs are those that are directly related to the intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, and travel costs for the patient. Indirect costs are those that are incurred due to the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work or reduced work productivity, as well as time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are those that are difficult to measure, such as pain or suffering experienced by the patient.
Understanding the different types of costs is important in economic evaluation studies as it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the costs associated with a healthcare intervention. By considering all types of costs, decision-makers can make informed decisions about the most cost-effective interventions to implement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials into the use of a new drug for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. The studies compare the use of the drug and standard care against a placebo and standard care.
She has plotted the studies on an axis with the treatment effect (change in cognitive function score) on the horizontal axis and the standard error of the effect estimate on the vertical axis.
What type of plot has been created?Your Answer: Box plot
Correct Answer: Funnel plot
Explanation:Funnel plots are used in meta-analyses to show the potential for publication bias. They display effect size on the horizontal axis and a measure of the studies’ standard error on the vertical axis. A symmetrical funnel plot indicates a lack of publication bias, while an asymmetric plot may suggest bias or heterogeneity. The interpretation of funnel plots is described in a BMJ paper by Sterne et al. Box plots, forest plots, histograms, and normal Q-Q plots are other types of plots used in statistical analysis.
Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses
Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).
In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.
The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?Your Answer: Specificity
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Understanding Prevalence and Incidence
Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which statements accurately describe an intention to treat analysis?
Your Answer: It is a study that analyses all patients randomised to the study
Correct Answer: It is a study comparing the effects of treatment with placebo or active treatment and also a similar group of non-study participants
Explanation:Intention to Treat Studies
When conducting a randomised study, the principles of double-blind placebo control may apply, but the preferential fall out of patients who do not perceive a benefit from the placebo may introduce bias. Intention to treat studies argue that all patients who originally participate in the study should be committed to analysis. This approach maintains treatment groups that are similar apart from random variation, which is the reason for randomisation. Failure to perform analysis on the groups produced by the randomisation process may result in the loss of this feature. Additionally, intention to treat studies permit non-compliance and deviations from policy by clinicians. By committing all patients to analysis, intention to treat studies provide a more accurate representation of the effectiveness of a treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?
Your Answer: 0.3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.
Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.
To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.
Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A new type of blood test is being studied that may accurately detect the presence of a certain disease in elderly patients. One hundred and fifty patients who have the disease confirmed via the gold standard, a specific medical test, are recruited, along with one hundred and fifty patients who do not have the disease. They are all subjected to the new blood test and the results are as follows:
Disease present on medical test Disease absent on medical test
Blood test positive 90 30
Blood test negative 60 120
What is the positive predictive value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.75
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive results. In this case, the total number of positive blood tests is 120, with 90 true positives. Therefore, the PPV is 0.75.
The sensitivity of the test is the proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result. In this scenario, out of the 150 people with the disease identified on CTPA, 90 have a positive blood result, resulting in a sensitivity of 0.6.
The negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of true negative results out of all negative results. In this case, there are 180 negative blood results, with 120 being truly negative as per the disease being absent on CTPA. Therefore, the NPV is 0.67.
The figure of 0.7 is not relevant to this scenario.Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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