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Question 1
Correct
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A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a course of antibioticsWhich of the antibiotics listed below is MOST likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Tendinopathy and spontaneous tendon rupture are caused by fluoroquinolones, which are an uncommon but well-known cause. Tendon problems caused by fluoroquinolones are expected to affect 15 to 20 people per 100,000. Patients over the age of 60 are most likely to develop them.It usually affects the Achilles tendon, but it has also been described in cases involving the quadriceps, peroneus brevis, extensor pollicis longus, long head of biceps brachii, and rotator cuff tendons. The exact aetiology is uncertain, although the fluoroquinolone medication is thought to obstruct collagen activity and/or cut off blood supply to the tendon.Other factors linked to tendon rupture spontaneously include:GoutTreatment with corticosteroidsHypercholesterolaemiaLong-term dialysisKidney transplantRheumatoid arthritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. Bumetanide was recently prescribed for him.Which of the following statements about bumetanide is correct?
Your Answer: It is approximately 10 times more potent than furosemide
Correct Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide
Explanation:Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium, chloride, and potassium reabsorption by acting on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporter in the ascending loop of Henlé. This reduces the osmotic gradient that forces water out of the collecting duct system and prevents the formation of a hypertonic renal medulla. This has a strong diuretic effect on the body.It’s primarily used in patients with heart failure who aren’t responding to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency.In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. Bumetanide is 40 times more potent than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide.Bumetanide also lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing. In the neonatal period, it is being studied as an antiepileptic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a mineralocorticoid effect of corticosteroids:
Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia
Explanation:Mineralocorticoid side effects include:hypertensionsodium retentionwater retention and oedemapotassium losscalcium lossGlucocorticoid side effects include:weight gainhyperglycaemia and diabetesosteoporosis and osteoporotic fracturesmuscle wasting (proximal myopathy)peptic ulceration and perforationpsychiatric reactions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman receives vitamin B12 injections following a gastrectomy.Which of the following cell types, if absent, is responsible for her vitamin B12 deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:Intrinsic factor, produced by the parietal cells of the stomach, is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 from the terminal ileum. After a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 is markedly reduced, and a deficiency will occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone. Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Xanthopsia
Explanation:Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias. Side effects include:1. pulmonary fibrosis2. blue discolouration of the skin3. phototoxicity4. corneal deposits5. hepatic necrosis6. thyroid dysfunction7. sleep disturbances8. peripheral neuropathy. Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Bendoflumethiazide may cause all of the following electrolyte imbalances EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include:Excessive diuresis, postural hypotension, dehydration, renal impairmentAcid-base and electrolyte imbalanceHypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypochloraemic alkalosisMetabolic imbalanceHyperuricaemia and goutImpaired glucose tolerance and hyperglycaemiaAltered plasma-lipid concentrationsMild gastrointestinal disturbances
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End-systolic volume
Explanation:An increase in ejection fraction means that a higher fraction of the end-diastolic volume is ejected in the stroke volume (e.g. because of the administration of a positive inotropic agent). When this situation occurs, the volume remaining in the ventricle after systole, the end-systolic volume, will be reduced. Cardiac output, stroke volume, and mean arterial pressure will be increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old patient was brought to the ER after falling off of his skateboard. He is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. You suspect that he suffers from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions would confirm supracondylar fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to oppose the thumb
Explanation:A supracondylar fracture is a fracture that occurs through the thin section of the distal humerus above the growth plate. A supracondylar fracture is most usually associated with median nerve injury. A medial nerve damage causes paralysis of the thenar muscles, as well as loss of thumb opposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle via:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mitral valve
Explanation:Blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle via the tricuspid atrioventricular valve and from the left atrium into the left ventricle via the mitral atrioventricular valve. Blood is ejected from the right ventricle through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle via the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin. Which of the following complications is NOT a typical complication of pseudomembranous colitis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Volvulus
Explanation:Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, acute kidney injury secondary to diarrhoea, toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, and sepsis secondary to intestinal infection are all possible complications of pseudomembranous colitis. When the intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, an obstruction is created. This condition is known as a volvulus. Volvulus is caused by malrotation and other anatomical factors, as well as postoperative abdominal adhesions, and not by Clostridium difficile infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding antihistamines, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects.
Explanation:Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects. Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor. The newer antihistamines e.g. cetirizine cause less sedation and psychomotor impairment than the older antihistamines because they are much less lipid soluble and penetrate the blood brain barrier only to a slight extent. Antihistamines are used as a second line adjunct to adrenaline in anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that innervates the pronator quadratus muscle is damaged as a consequence of this injury.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Pronator quadratus is a small, square-shaped muscle that lies in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It arises from the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna and inserts into the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the radius.Pronator quadratus is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve. It receives its blood supply from the anterior interosseous artery, which is a branch of the common interosseous artery, which in turn is a branch of the ulnar artery.The main action of pronator quadratus is to assist pronator teres with pronation of the forearm. The deep fibres bind the radius and ulna together.The pronator quadratus muscle highlighted in blue (adapted from Gray’s Anatomy)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:One of the most common risk factors for GBS is infection with Campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhoea. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves, resulting in muscle weakness and paralysis. Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes can cause acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is commonly linked to E. coli infection. Following measles infection, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Salivary glands produce saliva which is mostly water, but it also contains a range of essential chemicals such as mucus, electrolytes, antibiotic agents, and enzymes.Which of the following is a carbohydrate-digesting enzyme found in saliva?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation:The acinar cells of the parotid and submandibular glands release amylase. Amylase begins starch digestion before food is even eaten, and it works best at a pH of 7.4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding penicillin antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with a history of atopy are at higher risk of hypersensitivity reactions.
Explanation:Allergic reactions to penicillins occur in 1 – 10% of exposed individuals; anaphylactic reactions occur in fewer than 0.05% of treated patients. Patients with a history of atopic allergy are at higher risk of anaphylactic reactions to penicillins. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after penicillin use should not receive a penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics; about 0.5 – 6.5 % of penicillin-sensitive patients will also be allergic to the cephalosporins. Patients with a history of a more minor rash (i.e. non-confluent, non-pruritic rash restricted to a small area of the body) or delayed reaction (rash occurring more than 72 hours after penicillin administration), may not be truly allergic and may be considered for penicillin or beta-lactam treatment in severe infection (although possibility of allergy should be borne in mind). Other beta-lactam antibiotics (including cephalosporins) can be used in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The proportion of individuals with a positive test result who have the disease
Explanation:Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.PPV = a/(a+b)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother. His forearm appears to be deformed, and you believe he has a distal radius fracture. A numerical rating scale is used to assess his pain, and the triage nurse informs you that he is in moderate pain.'The RCEM guidance recommends which of the following analgesics for the treatment of moderate pain in a child of this age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg
Explanation:According to a 2018 audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the standard of care for children presenting to EDs with fractured limbs has deteriorated, with most patients waiting longer than ever before for pain relief. More than one-tenth of the children who came in with significant pain from a limb fracture received no pain relief at all.For all patients, including children, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the United States recommends using the ABCs of pain management:A – Ask about pain regularly. Assess pain systematically.B – Believe the patient and family in their reports of pain and what relieves it.C – Choose pain control options appropriate for the patient, family, and setting.D – Deliver interventions in a timely, logical, coordinated fashion.E – Empower patients and their families. Enable patients to control their course to the greatest extent possible.The RCEM guidelines recommend assessing a child’s pain within 15 minutes of arrival. This is a fundamental requirement. For the assessment of pain in children, a variety of rating scales are available; which one is used depends on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These are some of them:Faces of Wong-Baker Scale for assessing painScale of numerical evaluationThe behavioural scale is a scale that measures how people behave.The RCEM has provided the following visual guide:The RCEM has established the following guidelines for when patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia:100% within 60 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest75% within 30 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest50% within 20 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman has reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion. Renal function tests and other investigations done leads to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).Which one of these is consistent with a diagnosis of AKI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A rise in serum creatinine of 30 μmol/L within 48 hours
Explanation:AKI is diagnosed based on an acutely rising serum creatinine and/or reduction in urine output.
AKI can often be non-oliguric.
AKI is present if any one or more of the following criteria is met:
- A rise in serum creatinine of ≥26 micromol/L (≥0.3 mg/dL) within 48 hours
- A rise in serum creatinine to ≥1.5 times baseline, which is known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days (in practice you can use the lowest value from the past 3 months as the baseline for the patient)
- Urine volume <0.5 ml/kg/hour for at least 6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of these is an example of ordinal data?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disease staging system
Explanation:Categorical data or data that is ordered is Ordinal data e.g. disease staging system, pain scoring system.Disease staging system is the correct answer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) has which of the following effects:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases urine osmolality
Explanation:ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, raising cAMP levels and causing intracellular vesicles to fuse with the apical membrane. In their membrane these vesicles have water channels called aquaporins, which increase the water permeability allowing greater water reabsorption and concentration of urine. ADH also binds to V1 receptor receptors on vascular smooth muscle, causing vasoconstriction and enhancing the effect of aldosterone on sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia. ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ADH deficiency (or an inadequate response to ADH) results in diabetes insipidus. Excess levels of ADH results in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend. She suffers from a variety of medical conditions and takes a variety of medications, including amitriptyline.Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to amitriptyline treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breastfeeding
Explanation:Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that is most commonly used to treat depression, but it can also be used to treat anxiety disorders, chronic pain, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It inhibits reuptake, raising serotonin and noradrenaline levels while also inhibiting acetylcholine action.TCAs have a number of drawbacks, including:Acute PorphyriaArrhythmiasDuring bipolar disorder’s manic phaseHeart blockAfter a myocardial infarction, there is an immediate recovery period.TCA levels in breast milk are too low to be harmful, and use can be continued while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It extends the medial four digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints
Explanation:Extensor digitorum is a long muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm. Together with the extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis as well as the brachioradialis, it belongs to the group of superficial extensors of the forearm. These muscles can be easily palpated in the lateral aspect of the posterior forearm, especially during the extension of hand when they are contracted.Extensor digitorum runs from the lateral epicondyle of humerus to the medial four phalanges of the hand. In this way, it generates the pull for the extension of the four medial fingers in their metacarpophalangeal and both interphalangeal joints. Extensor digitorum also participates in the extension of the wrist.Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor digitorum is vascularized by the branches of three different arteries: (1) posterior interosseous artery, (2) radial recurrent artery, and (3) anterior interosseous artery. Anterior and posterior interosseous arteries are the branches of the common interosseous artery that arises from the ulnar artery. The radial recurrent artery is a branch of the radial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children under 16 years
Explanation:Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A new test is being developed to diagnose chlamydia. 1000 people aged 15 – 35 years attending a GUM clinic undergo the new test and the current gold standard nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) to confirm the diagnosis. Of the 1000 people, 250 are diagnosed with chlamydia. Of the patients diagnosed with chlamydia, 240 test positive with the new diagnostic test and of the patients not diagnosed with chlamydia, 150 test positive with the new diagnostic test. What is the positive predictive value of this test:Chlamydia YesChlamydia NoTotalPositive testa= 240b = 150390Negative testc = 10d = 600610Total2507501000
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.62
Explanation:Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.Positive predictive value (PPV) = a/(a+b) = 240/390 = 0.62 = 62%This means there is a 62% chance, if the test is positive, that the patient actually has chlamydia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. His sputum is rusty in colour and is suffering from a fever. Upon examination, it was noted that he has crackles in the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray showed the presence of a right upper lobe cavitation.Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be mostly associated with a cavitating upper lobe pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Klebsiella pneumoniae is among the most common Gram-negative bacteria encountered by physicians worldwide and accounts for 0.5-5.0% of all cases of pneumonia. This organism can cause extensive pulmonary necrosis and frequent cavitation.It is one of the causes that could be suspected when there is cavitatory pneumonia with or without a bulging fissure sign. Often, there can be extensive lobar opacification with air bronchograms.A helpful feature which may help to distinguish from pneumococcal pneumonia is that Klebsiella pneumoniae develops cavitation in 30-50% of cases (in comparison, cavitation is rare in pneumococcal pneumonia). This occurs early and progresses quickly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness of breath and massive pedal oedema. There are fine crepitations up to the mid zones on both lung fields on chest auscultation. When questioned about her medication, she doesn't remember everything she takes but knows that there is a tablet to get rid of excess water. Out of the following medications, which one increases the osmolality of the filtrate in the glomerulus and the tubule, creating an osmotic effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mannitol
Explanation:Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that stops the absorption of water throughout the tubule, thus increasing the osmolality of both glomerular and tubular fluid. It is used to:1. decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma 2. decrease intracerebral pressure3. oliguria. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na/K/2Cl transported in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle. Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na/Cl transporter. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone receptor antagonist. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation:Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.The integrity of the ß-lactam ring is essential for antimicrobial activity. Many bacteria (including most Staphylococci) are resistant to benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin because they produce enzymes (penicillinases, ß-lactamases) that open the ß-lactam ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AML becomes increasingly common with age.
Explanation:Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the most common form of acute leukaemia in adults and becomes increasingly common with age, with a median onset of 65 years. It forms only a minor fraction (10 – 15%) of childhood leukaemia. The clinical features of AML typically presents with clinical features secondary to leukaemic infiltration of bone marrow and extramedullary sites: Anaemia (lethargy, pallor and breathlessness)Thrombocytopaenia (petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, haemorrhage) – often profoundNeutropenia (infections)HepatosplenomegalyGingival infiltrationCentral nervous system involvement in AML is uncommon.Leukaemia cutis is the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes in the skin. It occurs in approximately 10% of patients with AML.Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count is usually increased and blood film examination typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular and typically contains many blast cells.. The prognosis for patients with AML has been improving steadily, particularly for those under 60 years of age, and approximately one-third of patients of this group can expect to achieve long-term cure. For the elderly, the situation is poor and less than 10% of those over 70 years of age achieve long-term remission.CML is commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome. The Philadelphia chromosome is present in only 1% of adults AML cases.Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Digoxin is predominantly used for which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rate control in persistent and permanent atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Digoxin is most useful for controlling the ventricular response in persistent and permanent atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. Digoxin is usually only effective for controlling the ventricular rate at rest, and should therefore only be used as monotherapy in predominantly sedentary patients with non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. It is now rarely used for rapid control of heart rate, as even with intravenous administration, response may take many hours. Digoxin is reserved for patients with worsening or severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction refractory to combination therapy with first-line agents. Digoxin is contraindicated in supraventricular arrhythmias associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
