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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer: Nothing, she can continue as normal

      Correct Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms

      Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.

      Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.

      Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.

      Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.

      Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.

      Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the Menstrual Disturbance Clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the Menstrual Disturbance Clinic with a complaint of abnormal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 5 years. She reports that the pain is most severe just before and during the first day of her period and that she has been passing clots. During the examination, the physician notes thickening of the uterosacral ligament and enlargement of the ovaries. Laparoscopic examination reveals the presence of 'chocolate cysts'.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pelvic Conditions: Endometriosis, Adenomyosis, Fibroids, PCOS, and Chronic Pelvic Infection

      Pelvic conditions can cause discomfort and pain for many women. Endometriosis is a common condition where tissue resembling the endometrium grows outside the endometrial cavity, often in the pelvis. Laparoscopy may reveal chocolate cysts and a thickened uterosacral ligament. Symptoms include continuous pelvic pain, colicky dysmenorrhoea, heavy menstrual loss, and clotting.

      Adenomyosis occurs when endometrial tissue infiltrates the uterus muscle. Symptoms include dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Laparoscopy may reveal subserosal endometrium, but no chocolate cysts or thickened uterosacral ligament.

      Fibroids cause a bulky uterus on bimanual examination and menorrhagia, but not chocolate cysts or a bulky uterine ligament.

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) symptoms include oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, weight gain, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. Chocolate cysts and a thickened uterosacral ligament are not associated with PCOS.

      Chronic pelvic infection presents with deep dyspareunia and chronic discharge, but not chocolate cysts or a thickened uterosacral ligament. Understanding these conditions can help women seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman has been discharged from hospital with a diagnosis of systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been discharged from hospital with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with antiphospholipid antibodies. Her antibodies remained positive at 12 weeks and she is now on hydroxychloroquine monotherapy. She has a healthy BMI and blood pressure, does not smoke, and has no personal or family history of venous or arterial thrombosis or breast cancer. She is requesting to restart the combined pill. How would you advise her on this?

      Your Answer: The risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the combined pill

      Correct Answer: There is an unacceptably high clinical risk and she cannot use the pill anymore

      Explanation:

      The appropriate answer is that the woman cannot use the pill anymore due to an unacceptably high clinical risk. She has developed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with positive antiphospholipid antibodies, which is classified as UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use UKMEC 4, meaning it is an absolute contraindication. The risks of arterial and venous thrombosis would be too high if she were to restart the combined pill, and alternative contraceptive options should be considered. It is important to note that both SLE with positive antiphospholipid antibodies and isolated presence of antiphospholipid antibodies are classified as UKMEC 4 conditions, but not the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. The advantages of using the pill generally outweigh the risks is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 2. The correct answer would be applicable if the woman did not test positive for any of the three antiphospholipid antibodies or if she did not test positive again after 12 weeks. The risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the combined pill is also incorrect, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 3. Lastly, there is no risk or contraindication to her restarting the combined pill is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 1.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals a right pleural effusion. Following the removal of an ovarian mass, it is determined to be benign on histology. What is the name of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Meig's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of a non-cancerous ovarian tumor, as well as ascites and pleural effusion. This condition is uncommon and typically affects women who are 40 years of age or older, with the ovarian tumor usually being a fibroma. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor, although drainage of the ascites and pleural effusion may be necessary beforehand to alleviate symptoms and improve lung function prior to anesthesia. The prognosis for Meig’s syndrome is favorable due to the benign nature of the tumor.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      Ovarian tumours can be classified into four main types: surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastatic tumours. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. Examples of surface derived tumours include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour.

      Germ cell tumours, which are more common in adolescent girls, account for 15-20% of tumours and have similar cancer types to those seen in the testicle. Examples of germ cell tumours include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma.

      Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples of sex cord-stromal tumours include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma.

      Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and occur when cancer cells from other parts of the body spread to the ovaries. An example of a metastatic tumour is Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma that results from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?

      Your Answer: Perform CA125 and an ultrasound scan and only refer her urgently to gynaecology if these results return as abnormal

      Correct Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. She reports having a consistent menstrual cycle and no significant medical or gynaecological history. During the examination, the physician observes a retroverted uterus that is immobile. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The symptoms experienced by the patient in this case suggest the presence of intra-pelvic pathology, including a retroverted uterus and age-related factors. Chlamydia infection is often asymptomatic and does not typically cause dysmenorrhoea, although dyspareunia may occur. Lower abdominal pain may be caused by ovarian cysts, while ectopic pregnancy is associated with amenorrhoea and lower abdominal pain.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints of feeling down, difficulty sleeping and frequent headaches. She reports that these symptoms occur around the same time every month and cease just before her menstrual cycle. Sophie is worried about how these symptoms are impacting her work performance but does not have any immediate plans to start a family.
      What is the recommended treatment for Sophie's likely diagnosis at this point?

      Your Answer: Drospirenone‐containing COC taken continuously

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual syndrome can be treated with a combination of oral contraceptives and SSRIs, along with cognitive behavioral therapy. While the copper intrauterine device is effective for long-term contraception, it does not address the hormonal changes that cause PMS symptoms. The most appropriate option for Lydia is a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill containing drospirenone, which can alleviate her symptoms. Progesterone-only contraception is not recommended for PMS, and sodium valproate is not a recognized treatment for this condition. It is important to take the COC continuously for maximum benefit.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Sarah has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet. What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Sarah?

      Your Answer: Copper IUD

      Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she does not have a uterus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.

      For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.

      For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.

      In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.

      Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department in a septic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department in a septic and drowsy state. According to her friend who accompanied her, she has no significant medical history. She has been feeling unwell for the past few days, coinciding with her monthly period. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 39.1 °C, a blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. Her respiratory examination is normal, but she groans when her lower abdomen is palpated.

      Based on the following investigations, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Haemoglobin: 109 g/l (normal value: 115–155 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC): 16.1 × 109/l (normal value: 4–11 × 109/l)
      Platelets: 85 × 109/l (normal value: 150–400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal value: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 175 μmol/l (normal value: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Lumbar puncture: No white cells or organisms seen
      MSU: White cells +, red cells +

      Your Answer: Gram negative urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Drowsy, Septic Patient with Menstrual Period: A Case Study

      A female patient presents with evidence of severe sepsis during her menstrual period. The cause is not immediately apparent on examination or lumbar puncture, but her blood work indicates an infective process with elevated white cell count, reduced platelet count, and acute kidney injury. The differential diagnosis includes toxic shock syndrome, which should prompt an examination for a retained tampon and treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Bacterial meningitis is ruled out due to a normal lumbar puncture. Gram-negative urinary tract infection is unlikely without a history of urinary symptoms or definitive evidence in the urine. Appendicitis is not consistent with the patient’s history or physical exam. Viral meningitis is also unlikely due to the absence of headache and neck stiffness, as well as a normal lumbar puncture. With increased public awareness of the danger of retained tampons, toxic shock syndrome is becoming a rare occurrence.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome is having difficulty getting pregnant. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome is having difficulty getting pregnant. She and her partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years without any luck. During examination, she displays hirsutism and has a BMI of 25 kg/m².

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. While there is ongoing debate about the use of metformin, current evidence does not support it as a first-line option. In vitro fertilisation is also not typically used as a first-line treatment for PCOS-related infertility.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea that has...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea that has been going on for four months. She has also lost around 8 kg during this time and currently has a BMI of 17.4 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia as a Cause of Secondary Amenorrhoea

      This young woman is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is the absence of menstrual periods for at least three months after previously having regular cycles. Her low BMI and weight loss suggest that anorexia is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea. Anorexia is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe calorie restriction and weight loss.

      In this case, the anorexia has likely caused a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is a condition where the pituitary gland fails to produce enough hormones to stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen. This hormonal imbalance can lead to a range of symptoms, including amenorrhoea, infertility, and osteoporosis.

      It is important to address the underlying cause of secondary amenorrhoea, as it can have long-term health consequences. Treatment for anorexia may involve a combination of therapy, nutritional counseling, and medication. Once the underlying cause is addressed, menstrual cycles may resume, but it may take several months for regular cycles to return.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological options. Several months later, she experiences a vaginal vault prolapse and is referred to gynaecologists. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for her?

      Your Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy

      Correct Answer: Sacrocolpopexy

      Explanation:

      Sacrocolpopexy is the recommended treatment for vaginal vault prolapse. This surgical procedure involves suspending the vaginal apex to the sacral promontory, typically using the uterosacral ligaments for support. Other surgical options include anterior colporrhaphy for repairing a cystocele, vaginoplasty for reconstructing the vagina, vaginal hysterectomy for removing the uterus via the vagina, and bilateral oophorectomy for removing the ovaries. However, these options would not be appropriate for treating vaginal vault prolapse as the ovaries are not involved in the underlying pathology.

      Understanding Urogenital Prolapse

      Urogenital prolapse is a condition where one of the pelvic organs descends, causing protrusion on the vaginal walls. This condition is prevalent among postmenopausal women, affecting around 40% of them. There are different types of urogenital prolapse, including cystocele, cystourethrocele, rectocele, uterine prolapse, urethrocele, and enterocele.

      Several factors increase the risk of developing urogenital prolapse, such as increasing age, vaginal deliveries, obesity, and spina bifida. The condition presents with symptoms such as pressure, heaviness, and a sensation of bearing down. Urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency may also occur.

      Treatment for urogenital prolapse depends on the severity of the condition. If the prolapse is mild and asymptomatic, no treatment may be necessary. Conservative treatment options include weight loss and pelvic floor muscle exercises. A ring pessary may also be used. In severe cases, surgery may be required. The surgical options for cystocele/cystourethrocele include anterior colporrhaphy and colposuspension. Uterine prolapse may require hysterectomy or sacrohysteropexy, while posterior colporrhaphy is used for rectocele.

      In conclusion, urogenital prolapse is a common condition among postmenopausal women. It is important to understand the different types, risk factors, and treatment options available to manage the condition effectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - Sophie has presented herself to the GP practice as she is interested in...

    Correct

    • Sophie has presented herself to the GP practice as she is interested in starting contraception. She has chosen to use the contraceptive implant as she wants to avoid taking pills for her contraception. After obtaining informed consent, the implant was inserted into her arm. What is the main mechanism of action of this type of contraception?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive implant primarily works by inhibiting ovulation through the slow release of progesterone hormone. While it also increases cervical mucous thickness, this is not its main mode of action. The progesterone-only pill also increases cervical mucous thickness, while the intrauterine copper device decreases sperm viability. The intrauterine system prevents implantation of the ovum by exerting local progesterone onto the uterine lining.

      Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives

      Contraceptives are used to prevent unwanted pregnancies. They work by different mechanisms depending on the type of contraceptive used. The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) has provided a table that outlines the mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception.

      Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and injectable/implantable contraceptives primarily work by inhibiting ovulation, while the progesterone-only pill and some injectable/implantable contraceptives thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. The intrauterine contraceptive device/system decreases sperm motility and survival and prevents endometrial proliferation.

      Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, also works by different mechanisms. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal inhibit ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and inhibits implantation.

      Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important in choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also important to note that no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and the use of condoms can provide additional protection against sexually transmitted infections.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, the GP notes a pulse rate of 90 / min, a temperature of 38.2ºC, and diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels generally tender upon vaginal examination, while the breast examination is unremarkable. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia

      Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.

      If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.

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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan reveals that the tumor has extended beyond the ovary, but remains within the pelvic region. What is the stage of her cancer?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 30 year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of heavy periods that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of heavy periods that are causing disruption to her daily life and work. She is currently trying to conceive. Which treatment option would be most suitable for her?

      Your Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is the recommended first-line non-hormonal treatment for menorrhagia, particularly for this patient who is trying to conceive. The contraceptive pill and IUS are not suitable options, and endometrial ablation is not recommended for those who wish to have children in the future. As the patient’s periods are painless, mefenamic acid is not necessary. Tranexamic acid is an anti-fibrinolytic that prevents heavy menstrual bleeding by inhibiting plasminogen activators. This treatment aligns with the guidelines set by NICE for managing heavy menstrual bleeding.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.

      It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.

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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During laparoscopy, what is the most common location for the ectopic pregnancy to be found?

      Your Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for ectopic pregnancy is the ampulla of the fallopian tube. While other sites are also feasible, the ampulla is the most prevalent, making it the most suitable response.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (11/20) 55%
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