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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic some 6 months after the birth of her second child. The recent pregnancy and post-partum period were uneventful. Her general practitioner has diagnosed her with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler. On examination, she looks unwell and is slightly short of breath at rest. Her blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 24. There is mild bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Auscultation of the chest reveals no wheeze.
      Investigations
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Right axis deviation,
      incomplete right bundle branch block
      Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 33 mmHg
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Postpartum Dyspnea: A Review

      Postpartum dyspnea can be a concerning symptom for new mothers. In this case, the patient presents with dyspnea and fatigue several weeks after giving birth. The following differentials should be considered:

      1. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension: This condition can present with right ventricular strain on ECG and elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure. It is not uncommon for symptoms to develop after childbirth.

      2. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: Patients with dilated cardiomyopathy may present with left bundle branch block and right axis deviation. Symptoms can develop weeks to months after giving birth.

      3. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: While a possible differential, the absence of pleuritic pain and risk factors such as a raised BMI make this less likely.

      4. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM): HOCM typically presents with exertional syncope or pre-syncope and ECG changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy or asymmetrical septal hypertrophy.

      5. Hypertensive Heart Disease: This condition is characterized by elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which is not reported in this case. The patient’s symptoms are also not typical of hypertensive heart disease.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation and consideration of these differentials can aid in the diagnosis and management of postpartum dyspnea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      75.9
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.

      On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.

      What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents

      Introduction:
      A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.

      Myocardial Infarction:
      Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.

      Duodenal Ulcer:
      A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.

      Acute Gastritis:
      Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.

      Pancreatitis:
      Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.

      Ischaemic Bowel:
      Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      164.3
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  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.5
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  • Question 4 - At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later,...

    Correct

    • At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later, he is admitted to hospital with weight loss, palpitations, breathlessness and right ventricular hypertrophy. On examination he is found to have an audible pan systolic murmur.
      Which heart valve is most likely to have been affected following rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Mitral

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Valve Involvement

      Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from acute rheumatic fever and causes progressive damage to the heart valves over time. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve, with damage patterns varying by age. Younger patients tend to have regurgitation, while those in adolescence have a mix of regurgitation and stenosis, and early adulthood onwards tend to have pure mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement can also occur later in life. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing mitral regurgitation, causing palpitations and breathlessness. While the pulmonary valve can be affected, it is rare, and tricuspid involvement is even rarer and only present in advanced stages. Aortic valve involvement can produce similar symptoms, but with different murmurs on examination. When the aortic valve is involved, all leaflets are affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.4
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.5
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      80
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  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old male with a known history of rheumatic fever and frequent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male with a known history of rheumatic fever and frequent episodes of pulmonary oedema is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. During examination, an irregularly irregular pulse was noted and auscultation revealed a loud first heart sound and a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur. What is the most probable cause of this patient's pulmonary hypertension?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Valve Disorders: Mitral Stenosis, Mitral Regurgitation, Aortic Regurgitation, Pulmonary Stenosis, and Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Cardiac valve disorders are conditions that affect the proper functioning of the heart valves. Among these disorders are mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, pulmonary stenosis, and primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, usually caused by rheumatic fever. Symptoms include palpitations, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. Diagnosis is aided by electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Management may be medical or surgical.

      Mitral regurgitation is a systolic murmur that presents with a sustained apex beat displaced to the left and a left parasternal heave. On auscultation, there will be a soft S1, a loud S2, and a pansystolic murmur heard at the apex radiating to the left axilla.

      Aortic regurgitation presents with a collapsing pulse with a wide pulse pressure. On palpation of the precordium, there will be a sustained and displaced apex beat with a soft S2 and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

      Pulmonary stenosis is associated with a normal pulse, with an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the lung fields. There may be a palpable thrill over the pulmonary area.

      Primary pulmonary hypertension most commonly presents with progressive weakness and shortness of breath. There is evidence of an underlying cardiac disease, meaning the underlying pulmonary hypertension is more likely to be secondary to another disease process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      67.9
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.

      Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      123.9
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  • Question 10 - During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • During a Cardiology Ward round, a 69-year-old woman with worsening shortness of breath on minimal exertion is examined by a medical student. While checking the patient's jugular venous pressure (JVP), the student observes that the patient has giant v-waves. What is the most probable cause of a large JVP v-wave (giant v-wave)?

      Your Answer: Obstruction of the superior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Lachmann test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      75.1
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings are 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?

      Your Answer: Overactive baroreceptor reflex

      Correct Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      Postural Hypotension

      Postural hypotension is a common condition that affects many people, especially the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing a temporary drop in blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response, which includes venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume. This response helps to restore cardiac output and blood pressure, usually before any awareness of hypotension. However, a delay in this response can cause dizziness and presyncope.

      In some cases, the reflex response is partially impaired by medications such as beta blockers. This means that increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. postural hypotension and its underlying mechanisms can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      41.6
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.

      - Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
      - Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
      - Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure

      Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis

      There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.

      To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      55.9
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mobitz type II atrioventricular block

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.

      Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.

      Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
      Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?

      Your Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)

      Explanation:

      Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings

      Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.

      Incorrect Cuff Size:
      Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.

      Alcohol and Caffeine:
      Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.

      White Coat Hypertension:
      Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.

      Pain:
      Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.

      Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the...

    Correct

    • You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on...

    Correct

    • What term describes a lack of pulses but regular coordinated electrical activity on an ECG?

      Your Answer: Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulseless Electrical Activity

      Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) occurs when there is a lack of pulse despite normal electrical activity on the ECG. This can be caused by poor intrinsic myocardial contractility or a variety of remediable factors. These factors include hypoxemia, hypovolemia, severe acidosis, tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, poisoning with a calcium channel blocker, or hypothermia. Additionally, PEA may be caused by a massive pulmonary embolism. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of PEA in order to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
      What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?

      Your Answer: Patchy shadowing bilaterally in the lower zones

      Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure

      Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:

      – Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
      – Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
      – Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
      – Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
      – Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Examine the cardiac catheter data provided below for a patient. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the given information?

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg) End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 74 -
      Inferior vena cava 72 -
      Right atrium 73 5
      Right ventricle 74 20/4
      Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
      Left ventricle 98 210/15
      Aorta 99 125/75

      Your Answer: A 17-year-old boy who presents after an episode of exercise-induced syncope

      Explanation:

      Left Ventricular Pressure and Cardiac Conditions

      Left ventricular pressures that exhibit a sharp decline between the LV and aortic systolic pressures are indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. This condition is consistent with the catheter data obtained from the patient. However, the data are not consistent with other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital heart disease, post-MI VSD or mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation. Although aortic stenosis may also present with a left ventricular outflow obstruction, it is not typically associated with exercise-induced syncope. These findings suggest that the patient’s symptoms are likely due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart disease and identified stenosis of the right coronary artery resulting in reduced perfusion of the myocardium of the right atrium. Which structure related to the right atrium is most likely to have been impacted by the decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Right bundle branch

      Correct Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Supply to Cardiac Conduction System

      The heart’s conduction system is responsible for regulating the heartbeat. The following are the coronary arteries that supply blood to the different parts of the cardiac conduction system:

      Sinoatrial Node
      The sinoatrial node, which is the primary pacemaker of the heart, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 60% of cases through a sinoatrial nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Node
      The atrioventricular node, which is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse before it reaches the ventricles, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals through the atrioventricular nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Bundle
      The atrioventricular bundle, which conducts the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, is supplied by numerous septal arteries that mostly arise from the anterior interventricular artery, a branch of the left coronary artery.

      Left Bundle Branch
      The left bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the left ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the left coronary artery.

      Right Bundle Branch
      The right bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the right ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. Upon examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally, and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, which was conducted 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. What medication could be added to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. The patient’s mother is concerned about any potential lasting damage to the heart.
      What is the most common cardiac sequelae of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Fever and its Effects on Cardiac Valves

      Rheumatic fever is a condition caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. To diagnose it, the revised Duckett-Jones criteria are used, which require evidence of streptococcal infection and the presence of certain criteria. While all four cardiac valves may be damaged as a result of rheumatic fever, the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, with major criteria including carditis, subcutaneous nodule, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham’s chorea. Minor criteria include arthralgia, fever, raised CRP or ESR, raised WCC, heart block, and previous rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the most common result of rheumatic fever, but it is becoming less frequently seen in clinical practice. Pulmonary regurgitation, aortic sclerosis, and tricuspid regurgitation are also possible effects, but they are less common than mitral valve damage. Ventricular septal defect is not commonly associated with rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion and a painful and tender knee. During auscultation, a mid-diastolic murmur with a loud S1 is heard. Echocardiography reveals valvular heart disease with a normal left ventricular ejection fraction.
      What is the most probable valvular disease?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Causes and Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common causes and characteristics of heart murmurs:

      Mitral Stenosis: This condition is most commonly caused by rheumatic fever in childhood and is rare in developed countries. Patients with mitral stenosis will have a loud S1 with an associated opening snap. However, if the mitral valve is calcified or there is severe stenosis, the opening snap may be absent and S1 soft.

      Mitral Regurgitation and Ventricular Septal Defect: These conditions cause a pan-systolic murmur, which is not the correct option for differentiating heart murmurs.

      Aortic Regurgitation: This condition leads to an early diastolic murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: As discussed, a ventricular septal defect will cause a pan-systolic murmur.

      By understanding the causes and characteristics of different heart murmurs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat underlying heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient...

    Correct

    • An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:

      Hypokalaemia:
      – ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
      – Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
      – Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)

      Hyponatraemia:
      – ECG changes: ST elevation
      – Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      Hypocalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
      – Treatment: calcium replacement

      Hyperkalaemia:
      – ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
      – Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
      – Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemia

      Hypercalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      It is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, laboratory test results reveal the following:
      - Serum glucose: 4.5 mmol/L
      - Haemoglobin A1c: 4.2% (22 mmol/mol)
      - Total cholesterol: 5.8 mmol/L
      - LDL cholesterol: 4.2 mmol/L
      - HDL cholesterol: 0.6 mmol/L

      Based on these results, what is the most likely mechanism for injury to the vascular endothelium in this patient?

      Your Answer: Collection of lipid in foam cells

      Explanation:

      Atherosclerosis and Related Conditions

      Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of lipids in arterial walls, leading to the formation of atheromas. This process is often associated with hypercholesterolemia, where there is an increase in LDL cholesterol that can become oxidized and taken up by arterial wall LDL receptors. The oxidized LDL is then collected in macrophages, forming foam cells, which are precursors to atheromas. This process is exacerbated by hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, which can lead to the degradation of LDL to oxidized LDL and its uptake into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages.

      Diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia is also associated with the accumulation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake. This accumulation can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis. However, neutrophilic inflammation, which is often the result of infection, is not related to atherosclerosis and is unusual in arteries. Additionally, atherosclerosis is not a neoplastic process, although mutations can result in neoplastic transformation.

      Overall, the process of atherogenesis is slow and does not involve significant inflammation or activation of complement. the underlying mechanisms of atherosclerosis and related conditions can help in the development of effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes to his fingernails. He has no past medical history except he remembers that as a child he was in hospital with inflamed, painful joints, and a very fast heartbeat following a very sore throat.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pyrexia and Splinter Haemorrhages

      The patient’s past medical history suggests a possible case of rheumatic fever, which can lead to valvular damage and increase the risk of infective endocarditis later in life. The current symptoms of pyrexia, night sweats, and splinter haemorrhages point towards a potential diagnosis of infective endocarditis. There are no clinical signs of septic arthritis, hepatitis, or pneumonia. Aortic regurgitation may present with different symptoms such as fatigue, syncope, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes infective endocarditis as the most probable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
      Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Brain neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis

      Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.

      Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.

      Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.

      It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that began...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that began 2 hours ago. He reports that he first noticed the pain while lying down. The pain is rated at 7/10 in intensity and worsens with deep inspiration but improves when he leans forward. The patient has a medical history of long-standing diabetes mellitus and had a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago, for which he underwent coronary artery bypass grafting. The surgery was uncomplicated, and he recovered without any issues. He smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes per day and does not consume alcohol. Upon auscultation of the chest, a friction rub is heard. Serum inflammatory markers are elevated, while serial troponins remain stable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler syndrome, papillary muscle rupture, ventricular aneurysm, reinfarction, and pericardial tamponade. Dressler syndrome is a delayed complication that occurs weeks after the initial infarction and is caused by autoantibodies against cardiac antigens released from necrotic myocytes. Symptoms include mild fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a friction rub. Papillary muscle rupture occurs early after a myocardial infarction and presents with acute congestive heart failure and a new murmur of mitral regurgitation. Ventricular aneurysm is characterized by paradoxical wall motion of the left ventricle and can lead to stasis and embolism. Reinfarction is less likely in a patient with atypical symptoms and no rising troponin. Pericardial tamponade is a rare complication of Dressler syndrome and would present with raised JVP and muffled heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed a ventricular tachycardia of 160 bpm, appears ill, and has a blood pressure of 70/52 mmHg. What would be the most immediate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Arrhythmia: Evaluating the Choices

      When faced with a patient experiencing ventricular arrhythmia, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options. In the scenario of a broad complex tachycardia with low blood pressure, immediate DC cardioversion is the clear choice. Carotid sinus massage and IV adenosine are not appropriate options as they are used in the diagnosis and termination of SVT. Immediate heparinisation is not the immediate treatment for ventricular arrhythmia. Intravenous lidocaine may be considered if the VT is haemodynamically stable, but in this scenario, it cannot be the correct answer choice. It is important to carefully evaluate the available options and choose the most appropriate treatment for the patient’s specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (20/30) 67%
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