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  • Question 1 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?

      Your Answer: Photosensitivity

      Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips

      Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

      Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.

      Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.

      Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.

      Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and...

    Correct

    • A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?

      Your Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection

      Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.

      While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.

      Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.

      Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.

      Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.

      Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of erythematous papulo-pustular lesions on the convexities of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of erythematous papulo-pustular lesions on the convexities of her face for the past two years. She also has a history of erythema and telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rosacea

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Conditions

      Skin conditions can be easily differentiated based on their characteristic symptoms. Acne is identified by the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. On the other hand, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, along with other systemic symptoms. Meanwhile, polymorphous light eruption (PLE) does not cause telangiectasia.

      One telltale sign of acne is the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. These are often accompanied by background erythema and telangiectasia. In contrast, SLE is identified by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, which may be accompanied by other systemic symptoms. PLE, on the other hand, does not cause telangiectasia. By the unique symptoms of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical betamethasone

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:

      Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.

      Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.

      Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches of skin on his antecubital fossae, lateral thighs, and popliteal fossae. The skin on his right thigh is weeping and inflamed. He reports feeling fatigued and wonders if he has had a fever. His vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your examination, you diagnose him with moderately severe eczema.
      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily hydrocortisone 1% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

      Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of infected eczema/cellulitis with an erythematosus, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh.

      The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15-20 minutes for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7-14 days and continue until 48 hours after the eczematous patches have cleared.

      Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne

      Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:

      Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.

      Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.

      Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.

      Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
      During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
      The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms

      When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Should be given a course of oral steroids

      Correct Answer: Might benefit from a diet free of cow's milk

      Explanation:

      Managing Eczema in Infants

      Eczema is a common skin condition in infants that can cause discomfort and distress. Cow’s milk allergy may trigger severe eczema, but switching to a soy-based formula may help alleviate symptoms. While complete cure may not be possible, appropriate preventative measures and topical preparations can minimize the condition’s impact. Most infants outgrow eczema by the age of 2-3 years.

      There is no evidence to suggest that infants with eczema should not receive measles or pertussis immunization, but they should avoid immunization if they have a concurrent skin infection. Oral steroids are a last resort and are rarely used in infants with severe eczema. By following these guidelines, parents and caregivers can help manage eczema in infants and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a medical history, the doctor informs the mother that the skin lesions are likely caused by a viral infection.
      What is the most probable condition that could be caused by a virus in this case?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that spreads through direct contact and causes pink papules with a central umbilicus. The lesions contain cheese-like material and can be treated with cryotherapy or imiquimod.

      Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that affects the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, causing red, swollen, and painful skin. It is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

      Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by staphylococcal infections.

      Impetigo is a bacterial infection that results in pustules and honey-colored, crusted erosions. It is commonly caused by S. aureus.

      Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe bacterial infection that affects soft tissue and fascia. The bacteria release toxins and enzymes that lead to thrombosis and destruction of soft tissue and fascia. Bacterial causes include S. aureus and Clostridium perfringens, among others.

      Overview of Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has extensive plaque psoriasis and has tried a number of therapies, including retinoids, topical corticosteroids and photochemotherapy (PUVA).
      What would be the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Trial etanercept

      Correct Answer: Start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when topical therapies are not effective. In such cases, systemic therapies may be considered. Methotrexate and ciclosporin are two such options that can be effective in inducing remission. However, it is important to weigh the potential side-effects of these medications before starting treatment. Vitamin D analogues and coal tar products may not be effective in severe cases of psoriasis. Oral steroids are also not recommended as a long-term solution. Biological therapy, such as etanercept, should only be considered when standard systemic therapies have failed. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and trial other treatments before considering biological agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide

      Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:

      Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.

      Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.

      Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.

      Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.

      Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.

      By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the skin. She is usually healthy but has been taking regular ibuprofen for the past two days due to a headache.
      On examination, the patient has numerous tense bullae across the trunk and limbs. There is no involvement of the mouth. The dermatologist suspects bullous pemphigoid and wonders which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms in this condition.

      Your Answer: Desmosome

      Correct Answer: Hemidesmosome

      Explanation:

      Cell Junctions: Types and Functions

      Cell junctions are specialized structures that connect adjacent cells and play a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function. There are several types of cell junctions, each with a unique structure and function.

      Hemidesmosome: Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor cells of the stratum basale of the skin to the underlying epidermal basement membrane. Autoantibodies to hemidesmosome components can cause bullous pemphigoid, a disease characterized by large, fluid-filled blisters.

      Desmosome: Desmosomes bind cells together in the more superficial layers of the epidermis. Desmogleins are important proteins for desmosome integrity. Autoantibodies to desmogleins can cause pemphigus vulgaris and other types of pemphigus.

      Zonula occludens: The zonula occludens is a tight junction that fuses the outer leaflets of the plasma membrane, preventing the passage of small molecules between cells.

      Zonula adherens: The zonula adherens is an intercellular adhesion site that contains small gaps between adjacent plasma membranes in the junctional complex. It is reinforced by intracellular microfilaments.

      Gap junction: Gap junctions create an aqueous channel between adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small signaling molecules for the coordination of various physiological activities.

      In summary, cell junctions are essential for maintaining tissue integrity and function. Each type of junction has a unique structure and function, and disruptions in their integrity can lead to various diseases.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper arm, scalp and groin, along with an ulcerated blister on the mucosa of her lower lip. The cause is determined to be pemphigus vulgaris, with the pathogenesis of the disease attributed to IgG autoantibodies against which protein?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid antigen

      Correct Answer: Desmoglein

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and Skin Disorders: Understanding the Role of Desmoglein, Bullous Pemphigoid Antigen, Collagen Type XVIII, Keratin, and Desmoplakin

      Skin disorders can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune reactions. In particular, autoantibodies targeting specific proteins have been linked to several skin conditions. Here are some of the key proteins involved in these disorders:

      Desmoglein: This protein is targeted by autoantibodies in about 80% of pemphigus cases, specifically in pemphigus vulgaris. The autoantibodies disrupt desmosomes, leading to blister formation above the stratum basale.

      Bullous pemphigoid antigen and collagen type XVIII: These proteins are associated with bullous pemphigoid, which is characterized by autoimmune disruption of the hemidesmosome. This structure attaches the basal surface of cells in the stratum basale to the underlying epidermal basement membrane.

      Keratin: Mutations in genes encoding keratin have been linked to epidermolysis bullosa, a disorder that causes blistering and skin fragility.

      Desmoplakin: This intracellular protein links keratin intermediate filaments to desmosomes, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris.

      Understanding the role of these proteins in skin disorders can help researchers develop better treatments and therapies for these conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
      (slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis

      Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
      The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
      You suspect malignant melanoma.
      Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Irregular border

      Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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