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  • Question 1 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Correct

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
      During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?

      Your Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose

      Explanation:

      Driving and Epilepsy Medication

      Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      79.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 231 * 109/l
      - White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
      - Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
      - Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
      - Sodium: 142 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
      - Albumin: 36 g/l

      What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ileal stenosis

      Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.

      Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms

      Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      729.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, weight loss and anaemia. She describes no symptoms prior to this episode and is not on any regular medications.
      She drinks around ten units of alcohol per week and was previously an intravenous (IV) drug user, although she has not done this for many years. She has no significant family history.
      She is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
      What is the most likely predisposing factor for this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of liver cancer that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the patient’s history of intravenous (IV) drug use puts her at risk of hepatitis B and C, which are the most common causes of HCC in Europe. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection can increase the risk of developing HCC by 3-5% per year, and having both infections can further increase the risk.

      Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for HCC, but in this patient’s case, her drinking is not excessive. Hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition that causes the body to absorb too much iron, can also increase the risk of HCC, but it is less common than chronic hepatitis. However, this patient’s lack of previous symptoms and family history make it unlikely that hemochromatosis is the underlying cause of her HCC.

      Another possible predisposing factor for HCC is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), an autoimmune disease that affects the liver’s bile ducts. PBC is more common in women and may present with fatigue and pruritus, but this patient’s symptoms do not fit this clinical picture.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of HCC can help in identifying the underlying factors and developing appropriate treatment plans. In this patient’s case, chronic hepatitis B or C infection is the most likely cause of her HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8616.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (HELLP) syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.

      HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are cleaning out your medicine cabinet and you come across some expired...

    Correct

    • You are cleaning out your medicine cabinet and you come across some expired ampoules of diamorphine. You want to dispose of them.
      Who among the following individuals could witness their destruction?

      Your Answer: Any practice manager

      Explanation:

      Destruction and Disposal of Controlled Drugs

      Destruction and disposal of controlled drugs are strictly regulated and require an authorized witness to observe and counter-sign the controlled drugs register to confirm destruction has taken place, even after the drugs have expired. It is important to note that not everyone is allowed to witness the destruction of controlled drugs. The list of authorized witnesses includes any Police Constable, Inspectors of the General Pharmaceutical Council, CCG chief pharmacist or pharmaceutical prescribing adviser who reports directly to the chief executive or to a director of the CCG, a registered medical practitioner who has been appointed to the CCG Professional Executive Committee or equivalent, the CCG board executive member with responsibility for clinical governance or risk management, and the medical director of a CCG.

      It is crucial to understand that practice nurses or GP partners are not allowed to witness the destruction of controlled drugs. While any Police Constable or CCG Medical Directors may witness the destruction of CDs, there are also other possible authorized witnesses. However, in practice, it is not practical for CCG Medical Directors to visit practices solely for the purpose of witnessing the destruction of CDs, and regions will have their own protocols in place for the collection and/or destruction of CDs. It is also important to note that patient-held CDs returned to community pharmacies or dispensing doctors’ practices do not require an authorized witness to be present for them to be destroyed. This distinction is essential to remember, especially when being tested on it in the AKT exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      126.9
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at 12 weeks' gestation. She is normally well, is prescribed no medications, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, and uses cocaine most weekends. Her body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2.
      What intervention is most likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks' gestation

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of a Pregnant Cocaine User

      Assessment and management of a pregnant woman who uses cocaine requires careful consideration of potential risks to both the mother and the developing fetus. In this case, the following interventions are considered:

      Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks’ gestation: This is indicated to screen for small gestational age (SGA) babies in those with one or more major risk factors, including cocaine use. As such, this woman would be offered an US for fetal growth and wellbeing at 26 weeks’ gestation.

      Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery: Aspirin is used to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia in pregnancy, where there are risk factors. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor, and none of the other risk factors apply to this patient, so this is not indicated.

      No additional intervention: Cocaine use is a risk factor for fetal growth restriction, so additional scans to assess fetal growth and wellbeing are indicated.

      Tinzaparin from 28 weeks gestation: Tinzaparin is prescribed as prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism (VTE) where risk factors are present. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor for VTE in pregnancy, and this woman has no additional risk factors, so tinzaparin would not be indicated.

      Uterine Artery Doppler at 20 weeks gestation: This is indicated to screen for SGA babies in those with three or more minor risk factors. However, this woman has just one of these risk factors and this is therefore not indicated.

      Overall, careful assessment and management of pregnant women who use cocaine is essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old female presents with concerns related to reduced libido. This has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with concerns related to reduced libido. This has been causing problems with her husband and she feels rather down. They both deny any external factors or relationship issues.

      In her past history she has had ovarian failure associated with a hysterectomy three years ago and is being treated with oestradiol 1 mg daily.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Counselling & lifestyle changes

      Correct Answer: Optimise oestrogen replacement

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for hypoactive sexual desire disorder in women

      Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is a common issue among postmenopausal women and those who have undergone ovarian failure. While counselling and lifestyle changes may be effective in cases where the primary cause is stress or relationship issues, they may not be enough in cases where hormonal imbalances are the root cause.

      If depression is the primary cause, it may need to be treated, but some antidepressants can actually worsen the problem by reducing libido. In cases where hormones are inadequate, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, and an opinion from a specialist may be wise.

      Androgen patches are sometimes used to treat hormone-deficient women, but their effectiveness is controversial, and they may have negative effects on the liver and cholesterol. Progestogens are not necessary for women who have had a hysterectomy and may actually make symptoms worse. Overall, treatment options for hypoactive sexual desire disorder should be tailored to the individual and their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old accountant tells you that she drinks a 30 ml shot of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old accountant tells you that she drinks a 30 ml shot of spirits (35% ABV) followed by two 500 ml glasses of beer every Saturday night. The beer is 5% ABV.
      Approximately how many units does she consume on a Saturday night?

      Your Answer: 8

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Calculating Alcohol Units for Patient Counseling

      In order to provide appropriate lifestyle advice to patients regarding their alcohol consumption, it is important to be able to calculate the number of units consumed. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized the importance of this knowledge in their feedback on previous assessments.

      To calculate the amount of alcohol units in a drink, multiply the alcohol by volume (ABV) percentage with the volume in milliliters (ml) and divide by 1000. For example, a shot of spirits containing 25 ml and 40% ABV would be 1 unit.

      For a 250 ml glass of alcohol with 12% ABV, the calculation would be 250 x 12 / 1000 = 3 units per glass. Three glasses would equal 9 units, which is equivalent to one bottle in this example.

      It is important to do a quick reality check on the answer to ensure accuracy in calculations. The RCGP has noted that candidates often fail on simple calculations due to a lack of reality check. By doing a quick guesstimate, it is possible to flag any errors in decimal points and ensure accurate calculations for patient counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman presents with bilateral blurring of vision accompanied by light sensitivity...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with bilateral blurring of vision accompanied by light sensitivity and eye pain. Upon examination, you observe that her eyes are injected. She also reports experiencing ankle pain and displays tender erythematous lesions on her shins. A chest X-ray reveals hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis in Sarcoidosis: A Common Ocular Manifestation

      Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect various organs, including the eyes. Uveitis, a type of inflammation in the uvea (the middle layer of the eye), is a common ocular manifestation of sarcoidosis. It typically presents as granulomatous uveitis, which is often bilateral. Conjunctival nodules may also be present. Other ocular manifestations of sarcoidosis include episcleritis and scleritis, although they are less common than uveitis. It is important for patients with sarcoidosis to have regular eye exams to monitor for any ocular complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      232
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Malassezia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      102.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old gentleman being treated palliatively for prostate cancer is reviewed.

    He has advanced...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman being treated palliatively for prostate cancer is reviewed.

      He has advanced metastatic disease and is currently taking modified release morphine tablets at a dose of 60 mg BD for pain control. He tells you that since increasing his dose of morphine several weeks ago he is having a lot of problems with constipation.

      He weighs 70 kgs and has no known drug allergies or intolerances.

      What is the most appropriate regimen to prescribe alone as an initial treatment for his constipation?

      Your Answer: Lactulose solution 15 mls BD

      Correct Answer: Glycerol suppositories one PRN

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in Palliative Care

      Constipation is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by the use of opioid analgesics. To prevent constipation, laxatives should be co-prescribed with opioids. A combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant, such as co-danthramer, is ideal. Alternatively, a stool softener like docusate sodium can be combined with a stimulant laxative like a senna preparation. PRN suppositories are not recommended for regular use. Lactulose can be used in combination with senna, but some sources advise against it due to its side effects. Methylnaltrexone bromide is indicated for opioid-induced constipation in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.

      In summary, managing constipation in palliative care requires a combination of preventative measures and appropriate medication. Co-prescribing laxatives with opioids is essential, and a combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant is ideal. Methylnaltrexone bromide can be used in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      2594.9
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man presents with a three month history of wheezing and dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a three month history of wheezing and dyspnoea whilst at work. His symptoms improve significantly when at home and at weekends.

      What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cotton dust

      Correct Answer: Simple coal worker's lung

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma and Common Causative Substances

      Occupational asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects individuals who are exposed to certain substances in their workplace. The most likely causative substance is isocyanate, which is commonly used in the manufacture of foams and plastics. Other substances that are commonly implicated in occupational asthma include flour/grain, adhesives, metals, resins, colophony, fluxes, latex, animals, aldehydes, and wood dust. Although cotton dust can also be associated with occupational asthma, it is less recognized than isocyanates.

      Each year, there are an estimated 1500 to 3000 cases of occupational asthma reported. Symptoms of occupational asthma typically include coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. It is important for individuals who work in industries where these substances are present to be aware of the potential risks and to take appropriate precautions to protect their respiratory health.

      It is important to note that asbestos exposure is associated with a range of respiratory conditions, including pleural plaques, pleural thickening, pleural effusions, interstitial lung disease, mesothelioma, and lung carcinoma, but not occupational asthma. Silica exposure, which is found in coal dust, can result in pulmonary fibrosis. Simple coal worker’s disease is a nodular interstitial lung disease that is also associated with coal dust exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      30.7
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  • Question 14 - Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in...

    Correct

    • Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in the community, as emphasized by the new General Medical Services (nGMS) contract. Identify the patient who would be appropriate for shared-care drug rehabilitation in general practice.

      Your Answer: A 32-year-old married woman with children who has been smoking heroin for some months and has been under the care of the local drugs and alcohol service for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Shared-Care Management of Drug Misuse

      Shared-care management of drug misuse is a treatment approach designed for stable patients who have been receiving care from community drug and alcohol services and require maintenance prescribing of Subutex® or methadone. This method involves regular meetings with a drugs worker and a General Practitioner to ensure the patient’s progress and well-being. However, it is not recommended for individuals who are still chaotic in their drug use, those who need to start replacement treatment, or those who cannot attend regular appointments. It is also important to note that children should be referred to specialist drug services for appropriate care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      88.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Repaglinide

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      157.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As part of the review, you assess his 10 year cardiovascular disease risk and this is significant at 32%.

      This prompts discussion about the role of lipid lowering treatment in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Following discussion, you both agree to start him on atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You can see his recent blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs and fasting glucose) are all normal.

      In terms of follow up blood testing, which of the following should be performed after starting the atorvastatin?

      Your Answer: Liver function blood test within three months of initiation and at 12 months after initiation

      Correct Answer: Full blood count every three months for the first 12 months after initiation

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Liver Function in Statin Therapy

      Before starting statin therapy, it is important to measure liver function. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can still be used.

      Once statin therapy is initiated, liver function tests should be repeated within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months. Additionally, liver function tests should be measured if a dose increase is made or if signs or symptoms of liver toxicity occur.

      It is crucial to monitor liver function in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure their safety and prevent potential liver damage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of liver toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old male attends a well man clinic.

    On review of his history he...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male attends a well man clinic.

      On review of his history he has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg.

      His investigations reveal that he has a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46) and his cholesterol concentration is 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).

      Which of the following would be expected to be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular (CV) risk?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Correct Answer: Weight loss with Xenical

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction

      This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin, ramipril, and statins have been shown to reduce cardiovascular (CV) risk in obese diabetics and hypertensive diabetics, respectively, none of these interventions are as effective as smoking cessation in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk reduction in past and current smokers among women. However, there is less definitive evidence for men. Despite this, it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be of relatively more benefit than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, possibly due to the lack of studies conducted on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old-man presents with right sided loin pain radiating to the tip of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old-man presents with right sided loin pain radiating to the tip of his penis. Urinalysis shows non-visible haematuria. He has a past history of renal calculi.

      On examination he is hydrated and is taking fluids orally but has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours. He has a temperature of 38.1°C.

      Which of the following features in the history and examination should prompt admission to hospital?

      Your Answer: Patient is only taking fluids

      Correct Answer: Age of the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Renal Colic/Renal Calculi

      This case involves a patient presenting with acute renal colic, which requires careful management to determine whether hospital admission is necessary. While a past history of renal calculi is not necessarily a reason for admission, the presence of a fever should prompt hospital referral to prevent the development of sepsis. Non-visible haematuria is a common finding in acute renal colic and doesn’t influence the decision to admit. However, age should be considered, particularly in men over 60 with left-sided pain, as they may have an aortic aneurysm mimicking renal colic. If the patient is dehydrated and unable to take oral fluids due to vomiting, admission and IV fluids are necessary. In this case, the patient is drinking satisfactorily. For more information on the management of acute renal colic, refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries page.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 20 - Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please...

    Incorrect

    • Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please select one option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency

      Secondary immunodeficiency can be caused by various factors such as lymphoreticular malignancy, drugs, viruses, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, trauma or major surgery, and protein loss. Lymphoma, myeloma, cytotoxic drugs, and immunosuppressants like corticosteroids are some of the common causes of secondary immunodeficiency. HIV is also a significant cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Malnutrition, particularly protein calorie deficiency, is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide. Metabolic disorders like renal disease requiring peritoneal dialysis can also lead to secondary immunodeficiency. Trauma or major surgery and protein loss due to nephrotic syndrome or ulcerative or erosive gastrointestinal disease can also cause secondary immunodeficiency. While heart failure, lung cancer, and polycythemia are consequences of HIV infection, sarcoidosis has been reported to occur in patients with common variable immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The...

    Incorrect

    • A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means

      ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.

      The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.

      In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs

      Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human papillomavirus.

      What is the most appropriate next step, based on UK guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Referral for Colposcopy in HPV Positive and Abnormal Cytology Cases

      According to national guidelines and summarised in NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, individuals who test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and have abnormal cytology should be referred for colposcopy. This means that if a woman has a borderline smear and is also HPV positive, she should be referred for colposcopy.

      In this case, we have a 45-year-old female who would normally have cervical smears every 3 years. However, due to the presence of HPV positive and borderline smear, she requires further investigation through colposcopy. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential cervical abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 26 - A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
      What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.

      Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.

      Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance on managing his diabetes medications during Ramadan. He is currently taking metformin 500mg three times a day. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, it is recommended to take one-third of the usual metformin dose before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds after sunset. For further information, please refer to the Diabetes Care source.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic and significant blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 72 g/l 135-175 g/l
      White cell count 2.4 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 155 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocytes 0.80% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 92 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 8 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next option for further investigation of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Checking B12 and Folate Levels in Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Iron deficiency anaemia can mask the development of macrocytic anaemia, leading to a normal mean cell volume despite anaemia and iron deficiency. To avoid missing a potential underlying condition, it is crucial to check serum B12 and folate levels. Thalassaemia trait can also mask macrocytosis, but ferritin levels are elevated in this case. A blood film may not be helpful if macrocytosis has not developed, but in megaloblastic anaemia, oval macrocytes and hypersegmented nuclei in neutrophils can be seen. Therefore, checking B12 and folate levels is essential in the diagnosis and management of iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - A mother brings her 4-year-old child for a routine check-up and mentions her...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old child for a routine check-up and mentions her 6-year-old son. She expresses concern about meningitis B due to a friend's experience with the disease. When is the meningitis B vaccine typically administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months + 4 months + 12-13 months

      Explanation:

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.

      Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.

      Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Passmed