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  • Question 1 - In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted? ...

    Correct

    • In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Different Arthritis Types

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, Reactive arthritis is characterized by uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that does not involve the DIP. Gout, another type of arthritis, does not typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a MCP and PIP arthritis. Lastly, bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself. the characteristics of different types of arthritis can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis

      Explanation:

      Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics

      Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.

      Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.

      Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the left hand, although she is not experiencing any tenderness or swelling of the affected fingers.
      In which one of the following conditions can tendinitis/tenosynovitis present without being swollen and tender?

      Your Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection

      Correct Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Types of Arthritis and Infections that can Cause Tenosynovitis

      Tenosynovitis is a condition where the tendon sheath becomes inflamed, causing pain and swelling. It can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Systemic Sclerosis: This autoimmune disease causes fibrosis of connective tissue, resulting in hard and thickened skin, swollen digits, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Tenosynovitis in systemic sclerosis is non-tender and without swelling of the tendons.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Tenosynovitis due to rheumatoid arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons. It usually involves the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints, and can cause deformities such as swan neck and Boutonnière’s deformity.

      Gout: Gout can cause tenosynovitis, which is very painful and presents with redness and swollen tendons. It typically affects the metatarsophalangeal joints.

      Disseminated Gonococcal Infection: This infection can cause acute migratory tenosynovitis, especially in younger adults. Women may be asymptomatic, while men may present with urethral discharge or dysuria.

      Reactive Arthritis: This type of arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons, commonly affecting the knees or sacrum. It is an acutely inflammatory process and would therefore be swollen and tender.

      In conclusion, tenosynovitis can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back pain. He used to be an active soccer player but has had to give up due to the pain.

      During the examination, there is no skin rash or history of gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. The patient reports difficulty standing straight and walking in a stooped position for hours each morning before being able to stand up straight. Additionally, there is redness and pain around the right heel, and Schober's test is positive.

      What abnormalities may be found on the patient's ECG?

      Your Answer: Deep S in V1 and tall R in V5

      Correct Answer: A-V dissociation, deep S in V1 and tall R in V5

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing Spondylitis and Cardiac Manifestations

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a systemic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. One of the extra-articular manifestations of AS is cardiac involvement, which can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation. Chronic aortic regurgitation can cause left ventricular hypertrophy, resulting in deep S in V1 and tall R in V5. A-V dissociation is the ECG manifestation of heart block. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death.

      P-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, but it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension when the right atrium is enlarged. Pulmonary fibrosis, which can occur in AS, can theoretically lead to pulmonary hypertension and p-pulmonale. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur without any heart disease or in conditions such as atrial septal defect, ischemic heart disease, or pulmonary embolism.

      In conclusion, AS is a systemic disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body, including the heart. Cardiac involvement can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation, which can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death. While p-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur in various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.

      In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.

      It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.

      In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.

      While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
      Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.

      Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.

      Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.

      Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.

      Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.

      Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.

      In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA)

      Correct Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:

      1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.

      2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.

      3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.

      4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.

      5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.

      Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.

      In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.

      On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 99 g/L (130-180)

      WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)

      ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)

      Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Behçet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome

      Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.

      One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.

      Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.

      Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing severe foot pain. Her foot was trapped in the stirrup during the fall. An x-ray revealed displacement of her second and third metatarsal from the tarsus. What is the name of this injury?

      Your Answer: Lisfranc Injury

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Lisfranc injury is a type of foot injury that occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus. This injury is usually caused by excessive kinetic energy being placed on the midfoot, such as in a traffic collision. There are two types of Lisfranc injuries: direct and indirect. A direct injury occurs when the foot is crushed by a heavy object, while an indirect injury occurs when there is sudden rotational force on a plantar flexed foot.

      March fracture is another common foot injury that is caused by repetitive stress on the distal third of one of the metatarsal bones. This injury is often seen in soldiers and hikers who walk long distances. The onset of foot pain is gradual and progressive, and there is often trauma associated with it.

      Hallux Rigidus is a degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, making it painful and stiff. Jones fracture is a fracture in the meta-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal of the foot. Proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion, such as when stepping on a kerb or climbing steps.

      These different foot injuries have their own unique characteristics and causes. these injuries can help individuals take preventative measures to avoid them and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.

      The following tests were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 4.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 192 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
      - Urine: blood and protein present

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.

      Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.

      It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male immigrant from Turkey presents with complaints of recurrent painful oral ulcers, genital ulcers, tender nodules on the extensor surface of the tibia and arthritis of both knees and ankles for the past 3 months. He has also had episodes of severe eye pain. He had an episode of pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis of the right leg 1 month ago. On examination, the oral cavity shows the presence of small shallow ulcers with a yellow necrotic centre. Genital examination reveals ulcers on the shaft of the penis and scrotal scars. The glans is spared. Non-specific inflammatory response is observed after intradermal injection of normal saline. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) Positive
      Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies Positive
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behçet’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome: A Multisystem Disorder with Recurrent Oral and Genital Ulcerations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a multisystem disorder that primarily affects young people from the Mediterranean region, the Middle East, and the Far East. The syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcerations, as well as ocular involvement. The main pathologic lesion is systemic perivasculitis with early neutrophil infiltration and endothelial swelling. In some patients, vasculitis of the vasa vasorum can result in the formation of pseudo-aneurysms. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies are present in patients with Behçet’s syndrome. The recurrent aphthous ulcerations are essential for the diagnosis, and a non-specific skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation. Genital ulcers are painful, do not affect the glans penis or urethra, and produce scrotal scars. Thromboembolic events are a component of the disease itself, with superficial or deep peripheral vein thrombosis seen in 30% of patients. Pulmonary emboli are a rare but possible complication.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as extra intestinal Crohn’s disease, occult malignancy, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain clinical features and the presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies.

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      • Rheumatology
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Rheumatology (12/20) 60%
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