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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards after being seen struggling in strong currents. He was underwater for six minutes before being rescued. As a bystander on the beach, you assist in the resuscitation efforts while waiting for the ambulance. The man is unconscious and not breathing. You open his airway.
      What is the next best course of action in attempting to revive this individual?

      Your Answer: Give 30 chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute and two rescue breaths

      Correct Answer: Give five rescue breaths before commencing chest compressions

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Bystander CPR in Drowning Patients

      Drowning patients are at high risk of hypoxia and require immediate intervention. Bystander CPR is crucial in these cases, and it is recommended to give five initial rescue breaths, supplemented with oxygen if available. If the victim does not respond, chest compressions should be started at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with two rescue breaths given for every 30 compressions. Continuous chest compressions are essential for cerebral circulation during cardiac arrest, and rescue breaths should be given until the ambulance arrives. Compression-only CPR is likely to be ineffective in drowning patients and should be avoided. Remember, early intervention can save lives in drowning cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of his femur. He is day three post-op and has had a relatively uncomplicated postoperative period despite a complex medical history. His past medical history includes remitting prostate cancer (responding to treatment), COPD and osteoarthritis.
      He has a body mass index (BMI) of > 30 kg/m2, hypertension and is currently using a salmeterol inhaler, enzalutamide, naproxen and the combined oral contraceptive pill. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks eight units of alcohol per week. He manages his activities of daily living independently.
      Blood results from yesterday:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl) 108 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 85 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      You are crash-paged to his bedside in response to his having a cardiac arrest.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Initiate CPR and have someone call Cardiology regarding pericardiocentesis

      Correct Answer: Initiate CPR, give a fibrinolytic and continue for at least 60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiac Arrest in a Post-Operative Patient with a History of Cancer and Oral Contraceptive Use

      In the management of a patient who experiences cardiac arrest, it is important to consider the underlying cause and initiate appropriate interventions. In the case of a post-operative patient with a history of cancer and oral contraceptive use, thrombosis is a likely cause of cardiac arrest. Therefore, CPR should be initiated and a fibrinolytic such as alteplase should be given. CPR should be continued for at least 60 minutes as per Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines.

      Giving adrenaline without initiating CPR would not be appropriate. It is important to rule out other potential causes such as hypovolemia, hypoxia, tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and toxins. However, in this scenario, thrombosis is the most likely cause.

      Calling cardiology for pericardiocentesis is not indicated as there is no history of thoracic trauma. Informing the family is important, but initiating CPR should take priority. Prolonged resuscitation of at least 60 minutes is warranted in the case of thrombosis. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in the event of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      103.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in Nepal. She had flown...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in Nepal. She had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day for a hiking trip with her friends. She reports feeling light-headed and dizzy in the hotel lobby in the morning. Despite taking a short rest, she continues to feel unwell and complains of nausea and a generalised dull headache. She is overweight and has no history of migraine. Although she is well oriented, she feels that her nausea and headache are getting worse.
      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude

      Correct Answer: Administer oxygen and acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness

      Acute mountain sickness (AMS) is a common condition that can occur when ascending to high altitudes without proper acclimatization. Symptoms include nausea, headache, difficulty breathing, and dizziness. Here are some treatment options for AMS:

      Administer oxygen and acetazolamide: Low-flow oxygen and acetazolamide can effectively relieve symptoms of AMS. Dexamethasone is also an alternative to acetazolamide.

      Antiemetics and a dose of prophylactic antibiotics: These can help relieve symptoms in mild cases, but are not sufficient for moderate to severe cases.

      Nifedipine: This medication may be effective in treating high-altitude pulmonary edema, but has no role in treating AMS.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and bed rest: NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief, but cannot cure the underlying cause of AMS.

      Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude: Descent is always an effective treatment for AMS, but is not necessary unless symptoms are intractable or there is suspicion of illness progression.

      Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off a ladder. She was witnessed to have lost consciousness at the scene and remained confused with the ambulance personnel. She is complaining of a headache and has vomited three times. Her eyes are open to voice and she is able to squeeze your hand using both hands, when asked, and wiggle her toes. She is confused about what has happened and does not remember falling. Her pupils are equal and reactive.
      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head scan within 1 h

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Importance of CT Scan and Neuro Observation

      Head injury is a serious medical condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The current imaging modality used to investigate brain injury is CT. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) head injury guidelines, patients who sustained a head injury and have any of the following risk factors should be scanned within 1 hour: GCS <13 on initial assessment in the Emergency Department, GCS <15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the Emergency Department, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting. A provisional radiology report should be given to the requesting clinician within 1 hour of the scan performed to aid immediate clinical management. While waiting for the CT scan, the patient should be monitored using a neuro observation chart, and any deterioration needs to be immediately reported to the responsible clinician for the patient’s care. Admitting the patient for neuro observation is crucial to ensure prompt management of any changes in the patient’s condition. There is no indication to discuss the patient with the neurosurgical department at present. Once the imaging has been performed and if new surgically significant intracranial pathology is detected, then discussion of the care plan should take place with the local neurosurgical team. Discussion of the care plan with a neurosurgeon is warranted, regardless of imaging, if any of the following is present: GCS 8 or less persisting despite initial resuscitation, unexplained confusion lasting >4 hours, deterioration in GCS score after admission, progressing focal neurological signs, a seizure without full recovery, CSF leak, suspected/definitive.

      In conclusion, the immediate CT scan and neuro observation are crucial steps in the management of head injury. Discharging a patient with a high-risk head injury is inappropriate and can lead to serious consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
      What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?

      Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old girl with a history of eczema and asthma suddenly experiences breathlessness,...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with a history of eczema and asthma suddenly experiences breathlessness, nausea, and facial swelling after eating a chicken skewer at a party. Her friends report raised red bumps all over her skin and her lips are turning blue. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000)

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, immediate treatment with intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000) is necessary. This can be repeated every 5 minutes as needed, based on vital signs, until the patient stabilizes. Intravenous (IV) chlorphenamine in 0.9% saline (500 ml) may also be given, but only after adrenaline. Salbutamol may be considered after initial resuscitation, but oxygen administration, IM adrenaline, IV chlorphenamine, and hydrocortisone are the most important treatments. IV adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1 : 10 000 is only used in severe cases that do not respond to initial treatment and should be administered by experienced specialists. Reassurance and breathing exercises are not appropriate for a patient with a history of severe anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise healthy but had recently been prescribed amoxicillin by her doctor for a lower respiratory tract infection.
      During examination, she is unable to speak and has harsh upper airway sounds on inspiration. She also has a noticeable rash. Her pulse is 160 bpm and her blood pressure is 80/40. Her oxygen saturation is 90% on high-flow oxygen.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline solution intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Steps and Common Mistakes

      Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate management. The initial steps in managing anaphylaxis follow the ABCDE approach, which includes securing the airway, administering high-flow oxygen, and giving adrenaline intramuscularly (IM). The recommended dose of adrenaline is 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 solution, which can be repeated after 5 minutes if necessary. However, administering adrenaline via the intravenous (IV) route should only be done during cardiac arrest or by a specialist experienced in its use for circulatory support.

      While other interventions such as giving a 500-ml bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride IV, administering 10 mg of chlorphenamine IV, and administering 200 mg of hydrocortisone IV are important parts of overall management, they should not be the first steps. Giving steroids, such as hydrocortisone, may take several hours to take effect, and anaphylaxis can progress rapidly. Similarly, administering IV fluids and antihistamines may be necessary to treat hypotension and relieve symptoms, but they should not delay the administration of adrenaline.

      One common mistake in managing anaphylaxis is administering IV adrenaline in the wrong dose and route. This can lead to fatal complications and should be avoided. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended initial steps and seek expert help if necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old woman, who is a nursing home resident, presents to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman, who is a nursing home resident, presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of a one-week history of a red swollen calf, nausea and ‘ants on her arm’. She is noted to be unsteady on her feet and cannot remember what medications she is on. Observations find her temperature is 38.6 °C, oxygen saturation 98%, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute.
      What is the most likely cause of her hypotension?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Red Swollen Calf and Signs of Infection

      This patient is presenting with a red swollen calf, which is most likely caused by cellulitis. However, there are other possible diagnoses to consider based on the patient’s symptoms.

      One possible diagnosis is sepsis, which is a life-threatening condition. The patient should be treated immediately using the Sepsis Six protocol.

      Another possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolus with an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but this should be considered after ruling out sepsis and starting antibiotics.

      Hypovolaemia is also a consideration due to the patient’s hypotension, but there is no history of blood or fluid loss.

      Myocardial infarction is unlikely as the patient has no history of cardiac disease and did not present with any chest symptoms.

      Anaphylaxis is not a possible cause given the lack of a causative agent and other features associated with anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward to the Intensive Care Unit with rapidly worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol use.
      On examination, in the Intensive Care Unit, he is maintaining saturations of 91% only on the ‘non-rebreather’ mask. There is cyanosis around the lips; bilateral crackles are present on auscultation of the lungs.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
      pO2 8.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 4.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Chest X-ray Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Secondary pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and Differential Diagnoses

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition that can be caused by various factors, including trauma, acute sepsis, and severe medical illnesses. It is characterized by a diffuse, acute inflammatory response that leads to increased vascular permeability of the lung parenchyma and loss of aerated tissue. Symptoms typically occur within 6-72 hours of the initiating event and progress rapidly, requiring high-level care. Hypoxia is difficult to manage, and pulmonary infiltrates are seen on chest X-ray. Careful fluid management and ventilation are necessary, as mortality rates can be as high as 30%. Corticosteroids may reduce late-phase damage and fibrosis.

      While secondary pneumonia may be included in the differential diagnosis, the acute deterioration and bilateral infiltrates suggest ARDS. Unilateral radiographic changes are more commonly associated with pneumonia. Viral pneumonitis is another possible diagnosis, but the rapid onset of ARDS distinguishes it from viral pneumonitis. Fibrosing alveolitis, a chronic interstitial lung disease, is unlikely to present acutely. Cardiac failure is also unlikely, as there are no cardiac abnormalities described on examination and the chest radiograph does not demonstrate cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous congestion, Kerley B lines, or pulmonary effusions that are suggestive of a cardiac cause. Echocardiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac functionality.

      In summary, ARDS is a serious condition that requires prompt and careful management. Differential diagnoses should be considered, but the acute onset and bilateral infiltrates seen on chest X-ray are suggestive of ARDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      42.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (5/10) 50%
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