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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic with concerns about his recent exposure to chickenpox. He attended a family gathering where a child with chickenpox was present, but he cannot recall if he had the illness as a child. He is seeking advice on whether he needs any treatment.

      What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: She should receive oral aciclovir

      Correct Answer: She should receive VZIG if antibody tests are negative

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and are immunosuppressed should be given VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. The correct course of action is to conduct antibody testing to determine if the patient is negative, and if so, administer VZIG to protect them from potentially developing a serious chickenpox infection. Although a chickenpox vaccine exists, it is not part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule and is not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals due to its live nature. IV aciclovir can be given for chickenpox infection in immunocompromised individuals, but VZIG is more appropriate as it can help prevent the infection from manifesting. Administering VZIG once the patient has already shown symptoms of chickenpox is too late, as it has no therapeutic benefit at that point. While oral aciclovir can be given prophylactically or to reduce the severity of symptoms, VZIG is more appropriate for immunosuppressed patients who are at high risk of severe chickenpox infection.

      Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups

      Chickenpox is usually a mild illness in children with normal immune systems, but it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.

      To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, three criteria should be met. Firstly, there must be significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster. Secondly, the patient must have a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella, such as immunosuppression, neonates, or pregnancy. Finally, the patient should have no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, this should not delay post-exposure prophylaxis past seven days after initial contact.

      Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). Managing chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that requires more detailed discussion, which is covered in a separate entry in the textbook.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of headache, fever, severe myalgia and a petechial rash. He is jaundiced, febrile, has tachycardia and has not passed urine for over 14 hours. His urea level is raised and liver function tests indicate hepatocellular damage.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rat-bite fever

      Correct Answer: Weil’s disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Zoonotic Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Weil’s Disease, Brucellosis, Lyme Disease, Orf, and Rat-bite Fever are all zoonotic infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans. However, each infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics.

      Weil’s Disease is a severe form of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae. It is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with animals, especially rodents. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, severe headache, petechial or purpuric rashes, epistaxis, jaundice, renal failure, meningism, and multiorgan failure.

      Brucellosis is caused by the bacterial genus Brucella and is transmitted from animals to humans by ingestion of infected food products, direct contact with an infected animal, or inhalation of aerosols. Symptoms include fever, myalgia, weight loss, coughing, vomiting, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Males may develop epididymo-orchitis.

      Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans via tick bites from infected ticks. Symptoms include isolated erythema migrans, the characteristic skin rash which has the appearance of a ‘bull’s eye’ and a febrile illness. Untreated patients may go on to develop cardiac, neurological or rheumatological symptoms months after the initial bite.

      Orf is a zoonotic mucocutaneous lesion caused by a pox virus and is most commonly seen in workers who handle sheep. Symptoms include firm red papules that develop, enlarge, and become painful before spontaneously resolving. Systemic illness is rare with orf.

      Rat-bite Fever is an acute, febrile illness caused by bacteria transmitted by rodents. Symptoms include fever, a rash, and polyarthritis. The rash is usually widespread and may be maculopapular, petechial, or purpuric.

      In summary, each zoonotic infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics, making it important to accurately diagnose and treat each infection accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.

      German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.

      Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.

      Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.

      Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow vaginal discharge. Microscopy reveals the presence of 'intracellular Gram-negative diplococci'. The patient is in good health with a negative pregnancy test. What course of treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates,...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
      Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
      Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers. He describes a flu-like illness in recent days, with myalgia and rigours every two days. He has previously been well, other than an episode of suspected malaria on a gap year in Brazil three years ago, which was felt to be successfully treated. He has not been abroad since.
      On examination, he has splenomegaly, scleral icterus and a temperature of 39.1°C.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 100 × 109 150–450× 109/l
      Blood film Awaited
      Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fluctuating Pyrexia: Malaria vs. Other Causes

      The patient in question is experiencing fluctuating rigours of malaria, despite not having been in a malaria-affected zone for two years. This suggests a recurrence of pre-existing malaria, with the most likely subtype being P. vivax due to its ability to lie dormant in the liver for extended periods. While dengue fever is a possibility, the history of fluctuating pyrexia is more indicative of malaria, which also causes anaemia and thrombocytopenia. P. falciparum is a reasonable differential, but less likely given the patient’s travel history. P. malariae is rare and typically presents with fevers recurring every three days, making it less likely. Yellow fever is also unlikely due to the patient’s travel timeline and lack of jaundice. Overall, malaria is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.

      Understanding Genital Herpes

      Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.

      To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.

      In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.

      What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.

      Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.

      Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.

      Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.

      Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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Infectious Diseases (7/10) 70%
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