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Question 1
Correct
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You receive a letter about one of your elderly patients who has been prescribed methotrexate by one of the rheumatologists for severe rheumatoid arthritis. You have been asked to arrange regular blood tests every 2 weeks until treatment is stabilised. Which of the following groups of tests need to be performed each time?
Your Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests
Explanation:It is important to keep a close watch on the levels of full blood count, urea and electrolytes, as well as liver function tests while using methotrexate.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse
Explanation:- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
- Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
- Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
- There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
- Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
- Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.
- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents with back pain radiating down both legs. The pain worsens with walking and improves with rest and leaning forwards. The straight leg-raising test is negative and ankle jerks are present. Posterior tibial pulses are also present. What is the most probable cause of her pain?
Your Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Back Pain and Symptoms
Back pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own set of symptoms. One such condition is spinal stenosis, which typically affects older individuals and causes discomfort, pain, or numbness in the legs while walking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, causes low back pain without radiation down the legs, while lumbar disc prolapse results in pain radiating down one leg to the calf and foot. A lumbar compression fracture due to osteoporosis causes midline back pain, which can be severe and disabling. Finally, intermittent claudication presents as fatigue, aching, cramping, or pain in the buttock, thigh, calf, or foot while walking, but is unlikely if posterior tibial pulses are present. If mobility or quality of life is significantly impaired, decompression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She is taking three medications and her current blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. She has noticed that her face has become rounder over time and she is experiencing more acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has shown impaired glucose tolerance. Additionally, she has been struggling with abdominal obesity and has noticed the appearance of purple stretch marks around her abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is a rare disease that causes weight gain, hypertension, and other symptoms. It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma producing ACTH. Diagnosis is made through urinary free-cortisol assay and differentiation of the cause is done through the dexamethasone-suppression test. Drug-resistant hypertension may be caused by chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnoea, or hyperaldosteronism. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that causes severe hypertension and other symptoms. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a group of syndromes featuring tumours of endocrine glands. Simple obesity can be differentiated from Cushing syndrome by specific signs such as easy bruising, facial plethora, proximal myopathy, and purple striae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.
He has otherwise been well and takes no medication.
Which one of the following is most typical of frontal lobe dysfunction?Your Answer: Inability to generate a list rapidly
Correct Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s
Explanation:Understanding Different Manifestations of Neurodegenerative Conditions
Frontal lobe dementia is a common neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals between the ages of 45 and 65. One way to test for frontal lobe dysfunction is to assess a patient’s ability to generate a list rapidly, such as naming animals in 60 seconds or words beginning with a specific letter.
Dyscalculia, on the other hand, is a manifestation of the dominant parietal lobe. This condition affects an individual’s ability to perform mathematical calculations and solve problems. Sensory inattention is another manifestation of parietal lobe dysfunction, which can cause an individual to ignore or neglect one side of their body or environment.
Visual field defects are also common manifestations of neurodegenerative conditions. Homonymous hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in one half of the visual field, is typically associated with occipital lobe dysfunction. Superior quadrantanopia, which is a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. Finally, inferior quadrantanopia, which is also a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with parietal lobe dysfunction. Understanding these different manifestations can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat neurodegenerative conditions more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Routine referral to gastroenterology
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.Your Answer: Tuberculin skin testing is not a diagnostic procedure
Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy
Explanation:To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.
Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was robbed two weeks ago while walking home alone. He frequently experiences flashbacks of the incident. His companions have observed that he is more cautious of his environment when they accompany him. He is having difficulty sleeping and refrains from going out by himself.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the best description of a retrospective study from the following list of statements?
Your Answer: A study whereby patients who have had a myocardial infarction are interviewed to assess exposure to a variety of factors in the 10 years before their cardiac event
Explanation:Understanding Retrospective Studies: Examining Risk Factors for Myocardial Infarction
Retrospective studies are a type of research that looks back in time to examine exposure to suspected risk or protective factors in relation to a specific outcome. In the case of a study on myocardial infarction, the outcome is established at the beginning of the study, and subjects are compared with controls who are matched for age and sex but have not experienced a heart attack.
However, retrospective studies are often criticized for introducing bias that can lead to errors in the results. This is because participants are asked to recall events from the past, which can be influenced by various factors such as memory lapses, social desirability bias, and other cognitive biases.
Despite these limitations, retrospective studies can still provide valuable insights into the potential risk factors for myocardial infarction and other health outcomes. By carefully designing the study and minimizing sources of bias, researchers can obtain reliable data that can inform future prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, inform the DVLA
Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old man underwent a right hemicolectomy for a Dukes' B colorectal carcinoma. What is the most suitable tumour marker to be monitored during his regular check-ups?
Your Answer: CEA
Explanation:Tumor Markers: Identifying Cancer through Blood Tests
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be detected in blood, urine, or tissue samples and can help in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumor markers and their significance:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion. It is usually present only at very low levels in the blood of healthy adults but is raised in some cancers, including colorectal, stomach, pancreatic, lung, breast, and medullary thyroid cancers. While it lacks specificity and sensitivity to establish a diagnosis of colorectal cancer, it is used to help identify recurrences after surgical resection.
CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen 19-9) is secreted by some pancreatic tumors and is also elevated in gastric and hepato-biliary cancer. Its levels should fall when the tumor is treated, and rise again if the disease recurs.
PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a marker for prostate cancer, while urinary 5HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is elevated in carcinoid tumors and AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) is elevated in non-seminomatous germ cell tumors and hepatocellular cancer.
In conclusion, tumor markers play a crucial role in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these markers do not always indicate the presence of cancer and further testing is often required for confirmation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over the past six months. She used to be quite active and had no other medical issues, but now she is unable to maintain her previous exercise routine. It takes her several days to recover from fatigue after exercising. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS).
What is the most likely additional feature that would support this diagnosis?Your Answer: Normal sleep pattern
Correct Answer: Cognitive dysfunction
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a condition characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue that significantly reduces activity levels and is accompanied by post-exertional malaise. In addition to fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, such as difficulty thinking, concentrating, and remembering, is a common symptom. Low mood may also indicate depression or another mood disorder, which can cause chronic fatigue. Painful lymph nodes without pathological enlargement may occur, but further investigation is needed to rule out other causes of fatigue. Sleep disturbance is also common, and weight loss may suggest an underlying pathology that requires further investigation. It is important to understand these symptoms to properly diagnose and manage CFS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.
What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?Your Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings
Explanation:Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. He mentions that he has noticed a few lesions on her foot. He adds that she is perfectly fine and that he only noticed them while giving her a bath yesterday. You diagnose viral warts. The father inquires about the treatment options.
Your Answer: Treatment not required as most will resolve spontaneously
Explanation:As the warts are not causing any issues for the patient, it is highly recommended to provide reassurance and advise against treatment. Prescribing topical antiviral treatments or steroids would not be beneficial in this case. While cryotherapy and topical salicylic acid treatment are possible options, it is best to adopt a wait-and-see approach since the warts are not causing any problems. Therefore, the answer is that treatment is unnecessary as most warts will resolve on their own.
Understanding Viral Warts: When to Seek Treatment
Viral warts are a common skin condition caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). While they are generally harmless, they can be painful and unsightly, leading some patients to seek treatment. However, in most cases, treatment is not necessary as warts will typically resolve on their own within a few months to two years. In fact, it can take up to 10 years for warts to disappear in adults.
It is important to note that while viral warts are not a serious medical concern, they can be contagious and easily spread through skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as towels or razors with others to prevent the spread of warts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast pain. What would be the initial recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Progestogen-only pill
Correct Answer: A supportive bra
Explanation:The initial approach to treating cyclical mastalgia involves a supportive bra and basic pain relief measures like paracetamol, ibuprofen, or topical NSAIDs. Codeine is not the preferred first-line option. The evidence is inadequate to suggest reducing caffeine intake or using the progestogen-only pill. A systematic review revealed that evening primrose oil is not superior to placebo.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have a male patient aged 45 who has recently had a myocardial infarction.
He attends for follow up and says he was told in hospital that he has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH). He says several relatives in previous generations died young of heart problems. He has three children and wants to know what are the risks of their being affected.
FH is inherited as an autosomal dominant, so what is the risk of each of his children being affected?Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolemia Inheritance
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to remove cholesterol from the blood. It is caused by a mutation in the LDL receptor gene, which is responsible for removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol from the bloodstream. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that if one parent has FH, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit the gene and be affected.
Most people with FH inherit the gene from only one parent, making them heterozygous. This means that they have one normal copy of the LDL receptor gene and one mutated copy. However, in rare cases, individuals can inherit the gene from both parents, making them homozygous. In these cases, symptoms of FH can appear in childhood and can be more severe.
Overall, understanding the inheritance pattern of FH is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. It can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as genetic counseling for future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He has developed an eczema type rash on his body and has more loose stools. His dad noticed these changes after he started weaning. Prior to this he was exclusively breastfed. On examination he is well, except for mild eczema. You suspect a diagnosis of cow's milk protein allergy.
Which of the following milks could Rohan also be intolerant of?Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula
Correct Answer: Soya milk
Explanation:Babies with cow’s milk protein allergy may also have an intolerance to soya milk. The primary milk alternatives used for such babies are extensively hydrolysed formula and alpha amino acid formula. Oat and almond milk are not advised for babies with this allergy, although there is no evidence of any adverse reactions to them.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.
During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.
What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?Your Answer: Topical calcineurin inhibitor
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg. On examination, she has café au lait patches and some axillary freckling. She required surgery for scoliosis as a child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Diagnostic Features
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is an autosomal-dominant condition characterized by numerous café au lait spots and skin tumors. Hypertension can also be caused by this condition, along with other complications such as optic glioma, vertebral dysplasia, and intracranial tumors. Marfan syndrome, on the other hand, is not associated with café au lait macules or hypertension, but scoliosis is a common feature. Cushing’s disease can cause increased skin pigmentation but not café au lait macules, and it is a cause of secondary hypertension. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can also cause hypertension and is associated with dark skin spots in LEOPARD syndrome. Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by oval or leaf-shaped white macules, facial angiofibromas, and shagreen patches, along with other features such as epilepsy and learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.
Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications
Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is approaching his GCSE exams and is struggling with his hay fever. He has tried oral antihistamines, nasal steroids and homeopathic treatments. These help his nasal symptoms but do nothing for his itchy eyes.
What is the most suitable treatment for his symptoms at this point?Your Answer: Oral steroids
Correct Answer: Azelastine eye drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for Allergic Conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis can be treated with depot intramuscular steroids and oral steroids, but these options come with potential side effects. Steroid eye drops should be avoided due to the risk of infection, cataract, and glaucoma. Instead, a topical antihistamine is the preferred treatment option. Additionally, Grazax® is a form of immunotherapy that can stimulate blocking antibodies against grass pollen, but it must be started in the autumn before hay fever season begins. It’s important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.
When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.
What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test
Explanation:Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.
For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents with worsening neuropathic pain in his legs despite being on amitriptyline hydrochloride. His HbA1c is 82 mmol/mol. What would be the next step in managing his painful diabetic neuropathy?
Your Answer: Switch to a different neuropathic pain drug
Explanation:Neuropathic pain drugs are typically prescribed as a single therapy, and if they are not effective, they should be switched rather than combined with other drugs. However, it is common to see patients taking a combination of neuropathic agents. The 2013 NICE guidelines advise against prescribing more than one neuropathic pain drug at the same time, such as amitriptyline and gabapentin or pregabalin if there has been little response to amitriptyline. Capsaicin cream can be used as an alternative to oral preparations if they are not desired or tolerated. If the pain is severe or significantly affects the patient’s quality of life, a referral to a pain clinic should be considered. In cases where initial treatments have failed and the patient is awaiting referral, a short course of tramadol may be considered. It is incorrect to titrate amitriptyline if the patient has not responded to two months of treatment, as further titration is unlikely to be beneficial.
Understanding Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.
Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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You assess a 6-year-old boy who has been experiencing a persistent cough for the past 2 weeks after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The child's mother is interested in trying a cough syrup to alleviate his symptoms, as it is causing him to have difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following options could be considered?
Your Answer: Simple linctus (paediatric)
Explanation:Changes in Regulation of Over-the-Counter Cough and Cold Remedies for Children
In 2009, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) made a significant change in the regulation of over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold remedies for children. The change affected medicines containing various ingredients, including cough suppressants, expectorants, nasal decongestants, and antihistamines. These ingredients, such as dextromethorphan, guaifenesin, ephedrine, and chlorphenamine, were found to be potentially harmful to children under the age of 6 years. As a result, products with these ingredients should be avoided in young children. For children aged 6-12 years, products containing these ingredients will only be available after consultation with a pharmacist. This change in regulation aims to ensure the safety of children when using OTC cough and cold remedies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.
Your Answer: Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: Case report
Explanation:The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions
Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.
The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.
To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and pain in her left hip. She is under the oncologists and recent imaging revealed diffuse metastatic deposits throughout her pelvis, spine and ribs, some of which appear to account for her present pain.
The patient has come to see you to discuss pain relief as she currently takes only regular paracetamol. You discuss the options and she agrees that the next step is to use a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her past medical history includes angina which gives her relatively frequent symptoms and for which she continues to receive medication to treat.
Which is the most appropriate NSAID to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Naproxen 500 mgs BD
Correct Answer: Ketorolac 10 mg QDS
Explanation:Managing Symptoms in Patients with Metastatic Cancer: Considerations for Prescribing Anti-Inflammatory Medications
When managing symptoms in patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider the potential side effects of medications. For example, if a patient has angina, prescribing an anti-inflammatory medication should take into account their cardiac risk to avoid thrombotic complications that could cause additional pain and suffering.
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) carry an increased risk of myocardial infarction and stroke and should only be used over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if specifically indicated. However, even among NSAIDs, there is variation in terms of thrombotic risk. Diclofenac at 150 mg daily and high dose ibuprofen at 2.4 g daily are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen 1 g daily and lower doses of ibuprofen (=<1.2 g daily) have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Therefore, when prescribing anti-inflammatory medications for patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider their individual cardiovascular risk and choose the medication with the best safety profile. The lowest effective dose of NSAID should be prescribed for the shortest period of time to control symptoms, and the need for long-term treatment should be reviewed periodically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Correct
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John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his hand. The symptoms worsen when he raises his hands above his head. The numbness is not specific to any particular dermatome. He also complains of a painful neck and generalised headache. John is an avid golfer and is frustrated as he cannot grip his club properly. He also notices his fingers turning white in the cold. On examination, there is wasting in his thenar eminence. No other focal neurology is detected.
What is the most probable cause of John's symptoms?Your Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome
Explanation:Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle atrophy in the hands, as well as numbness, tingling, and potential autonomic symptoms. The narrowing of the thoracic outlet can lead to both neurological and arterial symptoms, which may be exacerbated by raising the arm above the head. The specific symptoms experienced will depend on the underlying cause and whether the condition is primarily neurogenic or vascular in nature. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist and typically results in numbness and tingling in the hand, without any associated neck pain or headaches. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes a change in the color of the fingers or toes in response to cold temperatures and can be either primary or secondary.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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When applied thinly, how much skin does one 'fingertip unit' of corticosteroid cream cover?
Your Answer: One adult fingertip
Correct Answer: Four adult hand prints
Explanation:Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. To ensure proper coverage of affected areas, the cream or ointment should be spread thinly but in sufficient quantity. A useful measurement for this is the fingertip unit, which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease.
To apply the correct amount, one fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg) should be used to cover an area twice the size of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together). This ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and absorbed by the skin. By following these guidelines, patients can maximize the effectiveness of their topical corticosteroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of rapidly progressive paraesthesia and weakness in both of her arms. She denies any fever or any difficulties with her bladder or bowel function. She has been in good health except for a recent bout of the flu.
During the examination, you notice symmetrical, global weakness in her upper limbs with hypotonia. You are unable to elicit any reflexes in her upper limbs. There is no sensory level demarcation. Her cranial nerve examination and lower limbs examination are unremarkable.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by the presence of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This syndrome typically presents as a symmetrical polyneuropathy that develops rapidly and is often preceded by an infection. It initially causes paraesthesia and lower limb weakness, which can quickly spread to involve the upper limb, cranial nerves, autonomic function, and respiratory function. As it is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system, it presents with lower motor neurone signs such as hyporeflexia.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, on the other hand, is a disorder of the motor neurones and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance such as paraesthesia. It often has a slower onset.
Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system and therefore presents with upper motor neurone signs such as hyperreflexia.
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular junction disorder that is characterized by fatiguability and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance.
Although the features of transverse myelitis and Guillain-Barre can overlap and coexist, the absence of a sensory level on examination makes transverse myelitis less likely in this case.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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