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  • Question 1 - For which countries is malaria prophylaxis recommended for travel? ...

    Correct

    • For which countries is malaria prophylaxis recommended for travel?

      Your Answer: Ghana

      Explanation:

      Malaria Prevention for Travellers

      Antimalarials are recommended for travellers visiting Ghana due to the high risk of contracting the disease. However, the risk is very low in Brunei and preventative measures such as avoiding mosquito bites are advised instead of medication.

      For those travelling to Ghana, the Public Health England recommended regime includes mefloquine, doxycycline or atovaquone plus proguanil. However, antimalarial prophylaxis is not required for any of the other destinations listed.

      In addition to medication, there are many other ways to reduce the risk of infection. It is important to wear long-sleeved clothes and cover exposed skin, especially during high-risk times after dusk. Repellents such as skin sprays and vaporisers can also be effective, as well as using mosquito nets while sleeping. It is also important to be cautious near water and swampland. By taking these precautions, travellers can greatly reduce their risk of contracting malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your...

    Incorrect

    • You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your slides. The presentation will be for students in your class and you also plan to share it with students in another class via video-conference.
      Under what circumstances is it necessary to obtain patient consent before displaying images related to patients?

      Your Answer: Images of rare skin lesions

      Correct Answer: CT images

      Explanation:

      Patient Consent for Showing Images of Rare Skin Lesions

      It is important to obtain patient consent before displaying images of rare skin lesions. The General Medical Council (GMC) recommends seeking consent in such cases. However, in other circumstances, consent may not be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice...

    Incorrect

    • The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.

      What is the best course of action to take following his death?

      Your Answer: Complete the death certificate

      Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner

      Explanation:

      If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.

      What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset, painless visual loss affecting her left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset, painless visual loss affecting her left eye. She awoke from sleep to find that she could only perceive light and dark and was unable to drive to work because of this.
      She has a history of recurrent miscarriage, although she has gone on to have one healthy child. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She is anxious and has a blood pressure of 154/89 mmHg; her heart rate is 78 bpm and regular.
      A picture of her left retina is shown below:
      Which of the following is the most useful investigation?

      Your Answer: Intraocular pressure measurement

      Correct Answer: Thrombophilia screen

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Visual Loss with Flame-Shaped Hemorrhages

      Explanation: Sudden visual loss with extensive flame-shaped hemorrhages on retinal photographs can be indicative of central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). This may be linked to an underlying thrombophilia, especially in patients with a history of recurrent miscarriage. Therefore, a thrombophilia screen is the most appropriate next step. However, it is important to note that raised intraocular pressure can also be a risk factor for retinal vein occlusion.

      Carotid angiography is not recommended as central retinal artery occlusion presents with a pale retina, not extensive hemorrhages. CT renal angiogram is not indicated unless there are signs and symptoms of uncontrolled hypertension. Intraocular pressure measurement is not useful in this case as it is associated with acute glaucoma, which presents with pain and a firm globe, and is not associated with the retinal picture seen in CRVO. Ultrasound of both kidneys is only useful in the case of hypertensive retinopathy, which is not suggested by sudden visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      110.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with pain in her left hip. She was evaluated by a colleague who suspected that her symptoms were likely due to osteoarthritis and since then she has had some plain films of her hip which confirm significant changes of osteoarthritis.

      She has been attempting to remain active and has increased her daily exercise to try and help with her symptoms and also lose weight. To manage any pain she experiences, she has been using heat and cold packs which provide some relief when her pain is bothersome.

      What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention in this case?

      Your Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoarthritis Symptoms: Core Strategies and Pharmacological Treatments

      In managing osteoarthritis symptoms, core strategies such as weight loss, appropriate exercise, and suitable footwear can be effective. Local application of heat and cold packs or TENS may also be helpful for some patients. Pharmacological treatments can be considered alongside these core strategies and used as adjuncts to manage symptoms.

      Oral paracetamol is a recommended first-line drug as it provides a good balance of efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and tolerability. It can be used as needed or regularly and is available over-the-counter, making it easier for patients to manage their symptoms independently. Topical capsaicin can also be used in some patients with knee and hand osteoarthritis, but its use must be complied with and may cause a burning sensation at the start of treatment.

      If paracetamol is ineffective in managing symptoms, other options such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids may be considered further up the treatment ladder. It is important to note that oral paracetamol is most effective when taken regularly, and the dose may need to be reduced in older patients. Patients should be counseled on the need for regular use and that it may take up to two weeks to feel the analgesic benefit of capsaicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep difficulties. She reports difficulty falling asleep and waking up early in the morning, leading to fatigue. Her daughter mentions that she was seen in a COTE clinic 6 weeks ago for memory problems and started on a medication, but cannot recall the name. The patient has a medical history of COPD, restless legs syndrome (treated with pramipexole), and ischaemic heart disease. She was also treated for an infective COPD exacerbation with amoxicillin 3 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pramipexole

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a possible side effect of donepezil.

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a risk factor that can contribute to the development and advancement...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor that can contribute to the development and advancement of diabetic retinal disease?

      Your Answer: The presence of microaneurysms

      Correct Answer: Microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Diabetic Retinal Disease

      Poor glycaemic control, raised blood pressure, increasing number of microaneurysms, duration of diabetes, microalbuminuria, raised triglycerides and lowered haematocrit, and pregnancy are all risk factors that have been shown to determine the development and progression of diabetic retinal disease, according to SIGN guidelines. Smoking is thought to be an independent risk factor in type 1 diabetes, but the evidence in type 2 diabetes is more controversial. It is important for individuals with diabetes to manage these risk factors in order to reduce their risk of developing diabetic retinal disease. By maintaining good glycaemic control, controlling blood pressure, and monitoring for microalbuminuria and other risk factors, individuals with diabetes can help protect their vision and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may...

    Incorrect

    • You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
      Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?

      Your Answer: Spinal muscular atrophy

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Syndromes and their Association with Cancer

      There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.

      It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease,...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:

      Your Answer: Anaemia

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, full dose proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPIs should be given for 1 month.

      For endoscopically negative reflux disease, full dose PPIs should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.

      Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. It is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and...

    Incorrect

    • You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and your next patient is a 37-year-old male. He expresses his concern about having Lyme disease after reading an online article. He reports experiencing intermittent malaise, joint aches, muscle aches, and headaches for the past two years. He also mentions having swollen cervical lymph glands and feeling hot and sweaty at night. As an avid hiker and mountain-biker, he believes he may have been bitten by ticks in the past. However, he denies ever having a rash like erythema migrans. What would be your initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Treat empirically for Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Perform ELISA

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of Lyme disease in a patient without a history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the recommended initial investigation according to NICE Guidance. If the ELISA result is positive, immunoblot should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. However, if there is a high suspicion of Lyme disease despite the absence of erythema migrans, treatment should be initiated while waiting for the ELISA result. In patients with erythema migrans, treatment should be started immediately. The patient’s symptoms may not be specific to Lyme disease, but ELISA is still the first-line investigation.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first pregnancy. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and is very anxious about her infant’s health. There are no features of delirium. She has a history of illicit drug use but denies current use. Her older brother has depression. There are no features to suggest infection and there are no focal neurological signs.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: postpartum depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health: Depression, Psychosis, and Maternity Blues

      Postpartum mental health can be a challenging experience for new mothers. Within the first year of pregnancy, postpartum depression can occur, which is similar to major depression at other times of life. However, postpartum psychosis is a severe mental illness that usually occurs suddenly within the first two weeks after delivery and is often associated with confusion and disorientation. While delusions of something being wrong with the baby are relatively common in postpartum psychosis, depression is also associated with anxiety about the baby.

      On the other hand, maternity blues is relatively common and occurs within a few days of delivery. It consists of irritability and tearfulness without features of a major depressive episode. It is essential to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

      It is worth noting that there is no mention of schizophrenia in this woman’s history or any suggestion of current illicit drug use. By understanding the different types of postpartum mental health conditions, we can better support new mothers and ensure they receive the care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.

      You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:

      A Action
      B Contemplation
      C Maintenance
      D precontemplation
      E Preparation

      Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?

      Your Answer: D B E A C

      Correct Answer: A D C B E

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation

      The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

      It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.

      Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An older adult patient with renal impairment comes to see you for a...

    Incorrect

    • An older adult patient with renal impairment comes to see you for a medication review.

      He has suffered with moderately severe gout in the past and you notice that he has taken allopurinol 300 mg daily for many years to help to prevent recurrent attacks of gout.

      He is currently asymptomatic and is unaware of any side effects.

      From the perspective of his allopurinol, what would you do?

      Your Answer: Counsel him about stopping the allopurinol during an acute attack of gout

      Correct Answer: Reduce the dose to a maximum of 100 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol Dosage and Monitoring in Renally Impaired Patients

      Patients with renal impairment who are taking allopurinol should be aware that the maximum daily dose is 100 mg. In contrast, patients with normal renal function can take up to 300 mg per day, but doses higher than this would need to be divided. It is recommended to take allopurinol after food if possible, and patients should continue taking it during an acute attack.

      While agranulocytosis is a rare side effect of allopurinol, there is no need to monitor the full blood count on an annual basis. However, it is important to adjust the medication dosage in light of the patient’s renal function to avoid potential adverse effects. By following these guidelines, patients with renal impairment can safely and effectively manage their gout symptoms with allopurinol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy. A medical student is present and asks for an explanation of the mechanism for this.
      Select the option that most accurately describes the changes involved.

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone levels are decreased

      Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Osteodystrophy: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcemia. These conditions are caused by the decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Additionally, low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ inability to hydroxylate vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, which results in further hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Hyperparathyroidism then leads to increased osteoclastic activity, cyst formation, and bone marrow fibrosis.

      Diagnosis of renal osteodystrophy usually occurs after treatment for end-stage renal disease begins. Blood tests will indicate decreased calcium and calcitriol and increased phosphate and parathyroid hormone. X-rays will also show bone features of renal osteodystrophy, such as chondrocalcinosis at the knees and pubic symphysis, osteopenia, and bone fractures.

      Treatment for renal osteodystrophy involves increasing 25(OH)-vitamin D levels by taking alfacalcidol, which increases endogenous calcitriol production and can effectively suppress parathormone in the early stages of chronic kidney disease. Normal 25(OH)-vitamin D levels also prevent the development of osteomalacia. Gut phosphate binders, such as calcium salts and sevelamer (Renagel®), may help reduce phosphate levels.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of renal osteodystrophy is crucial for managing this condition effectively. Early detection and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer: > 200 µmol/l

      Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      37.6
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.

      What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?

      Your Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.9
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis. What are the available treatment options for this condition?

      Your Answer: Warfarin or Dabigatran

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or Rivaroxaban or Dabigatran or Apixaban

      Explanation:

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12.9
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  • Question 21 - A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report that for the last couple of days the child has been unwell with a runny nose and 'wheezy cough'. There is no history of apnoea.

      The child was born at 37 weeks via a normal vaginal delivery. There is no significant antenatal or postnatal history. The parents tell you that this is the first time the child has been significantly unwell.

      The child usually eats well but over the last two days has been eating less and becoming breathless during meals. Despite the reduced amounts taken per meal, the child is maintaining their eating frequency.

      On examination, the child looks comfortable at rest. Temperature is recorded as 37.9°C. There is no respiratory distress and no nasal flaring or grunting. Respiratory rate is 38/minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 96% in room air.

      Which of the following factors in this case should prompt acute hospital admission for paediatric assessment?

      Your Answer: Feeding history

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in Infants: When to Seek Hospital Admission

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in infants that can range from mild to severe. While most cases can be managed at home, severe cases may require hospital admission. It is important to be aware of the signs that indicate more severe disease and prompt immediate hospitalization. These signs include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, respiratory rate over 60 breaths per minute, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and oxygen saturations of 95% or less.

      It is especially important to seek medical attention for infants under 3 months of age and those born at less than 35 weeks gestation, as the threshold for admission should be lowered for these vulnerable populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      99.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has reported seeing small white strands in her stool. She is not experiencing constipation and is in good health otherwise. No one else in the household is experiencing similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her four-month-old brother.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise mum to apply Sellotape to the perianal area and bring it in to be sent to the laboratory to confirm the diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In this case, the appropriate treatment would be Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, but not for his three-month-old sister who is too young for the medication. While a sample can be sent to confirm the diagnosis, empirical treatment is appropriate in most cases. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the threadworm infection. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms, as it is used for scabies.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

      Which of the following measurements would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A plasma glucose of 10 mmol/L at the end of an oral glucose tolerance test

      Correct Answer: A urine dipstick analysis showing +++ glucose

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus

      Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or a fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L. Another option is the two-hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance may be indicated by a post-OGTT plasma glucose level between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose level between 6.1 and 7.

      For certain groups, an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point for diagnosing diabetes. However, it is important to note that a value below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) doesn’t necessarily exclude a diabetes diagnosis using glucose tests. It is crucial to familiarize oneself with the exceptions to these guidelines.

      Overall, the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of various factors and tests to ensure accurate identification and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in...

    Correct

    • The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?

      Your Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross

      Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.

      The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.

      The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.

      The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.

      The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.

      The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.

      While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She has no past or current history of self harm or suicidal thoughts. She was initially seen six weeks ago and is being reviewed today for the second time over this period.

      You discuss her symptoms and things are unchanged from when she was last seen four weeks ago with persistence of the mild depression. She tells you that she cannot see herself improving and is keen to engage with any help that may be appropriate.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Offer psychological therapy in the form of individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive therapy behavioural therapy, or guided self-help

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Depression in Children and Young People

      NICE has released guidance on how to manage depression in children and young people. For those presenting with mild depression, a ‘watchful waiting’ approach should be taken, with a further assessment arranged two weeks later. If the depression persists after up to four weeks of watchful waiting, psychological therapies such as individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help can be offered for a limited period of around two to three months. Antidepressant medication should not be used at this stage. If the mild depression remains unresponsive to psychological therapies after two to three months, referral to tier 2-3 CAMHS can be made for further assessment and management. This guidance aims to provide a structured approach to managing depression in children and young people, ensuring that appropriate interventions are offered at the right time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has undergone a glucose tolerance test.

      The lab findings are as follows:

      Fasting glucose 6.9 mmol/L
      2-hour glucose 8.5 mmol/L

      What would be the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Dietary advice

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated.

      In this scenario, the patient’s fasting glucose level is above 7 mmol/L, indicating the need for immediate insulin therapy (with or without metformin). The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on a fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L.

      While dietary advice is an essential aspect of diabetes management, it is not sufficient in this case due to the elevated fasting glucose level.

      Gliclazide is not a suitable option for gestational diabetes treatment because sulfonylureas are not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.

      Metformin may be used in the management of gestational diabetes, but in cases where the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L, insulin is the preferred treatment option. Insulin and metformin can be used together to manage gestational diabetes.

      Since both the fasting glucose and 2-hour glucose levels are elevated, there is no need to repeat the test as the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is conclusive.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.

      On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.

      Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?

      Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids

      Explanation:

      Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms

      Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.

      On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.

      In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic worried about his bone health. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic worried about his bone health. He has a history of polycystic-kidney disease leading to chronic kidney disease.

      He is a non-smoker and abstains from alcohol. His BMI is 23 kg/m2. His mother suffered a hip fracture at the age of 52.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Calculate his FRAX score. Consider dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan depending on results

      Correct Answer: Refer to the osteoporosis clinic and arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of left nipple itching that...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of left nipple itching that has been going on for 2 weeks. She denies any nipple discharge and has no personal or family history of breast disease. The patient has a history of asthma and eczema.

      During the physical examination, the left nipple and surrounding areola are reddened and the skin appears thickened. However, examination of both breasts is otherwise normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences reddening and thickening of the nipple and areola, it is important to consider the possibility of Paget’s disease of the breast. However, it is also possible that the symptoms are caused by nipple eczema, especially if the patient has a history of atopy and no personal or family history of breast disease. It is important to rule out Paget’s disease, as it typically presents unilaterally and may be accompanied by bloody nipple discharge and an underlying breast lump.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Nipple

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with an underlying breast cancer. It is present in only 1-2% of patients with breast cancer, but it is important to note that half of these patients have an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of them will have an invasive carcinoma. Even patients without a mass lesion may still have an underlying carcinoma, which is found in 30% of cases. The remaining patients will have carcinoma in situ.

      Unlike eczema of the nipple, Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar. Diagnosis is made through a combination of punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment options will depend on the underlying lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.

      Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.

      What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      54.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Population Health (1/2) 50%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/3) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (1/4) 25%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Passmed