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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of a malodorous...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge. Upon examination, it is determined that she has bacterial vaginosis. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can lead to various pregnancy-related issues, such as preterm labor. In the past, it was advised to avoid taking oral metronidazole during the first trimester. However, current guidelines suggest that it is safe to use throughout the entire pregnancy. For more information, please refer to the Clinical Knowledge Summary provided.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      165.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-year history of...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-year history of widespread body pain. The pain started after a fall and was initially localized to her lower back. Over time, the pain has spread and she now reports feeling constant pain all over her body. She denies any joint swelling or other systemic symptoms. She has difficulty sleeping and experiences fatigue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome but is otherwise healthy. On examination, she appears well and there are no significant musculoskeletal findings, but she is tender at multiple points bilaterally on her body.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia: Symptoms and Tender Points

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that primarily affects women, causing widespread pain and tenderness throughout the body. Along with pain, individuals with fibromyalgia may experience morning stiffness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, cognitive difficulties, and other unexplained symptoms. To diagnose fibromyalgia, doctors may use the standard 18 tender points, which are pairs of points on either side of the body that are particularly sensitive to pressure. However, many patients may experience pain in other areas as well. Routine blood testing can help rule out other potential causes of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: She should be given one booster tetanus vaccination

      Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound

      This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side with no other abnormalities detected in the right testis. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer: The patient can return to daycare immediately because he feels well

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's palsy three months ago. The patient was treated with prednisolone and has seen some improvement in their facial weakness, but still experiences some weakness in their left facial muscles (power 4/5). The patient is interested in knowing if there are any additional tests or referrals that could be beneficial.

      What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Reassure, but explain that if symptoms persist in four months' time you will refer to plastic surgery

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy experiences residual weakness after six months, it is appropriate to refer them to a plastics specialist. It is important to provide reassurance and safety netting regarding the referral. However, ordering an MRI head is not necessary if the symptoms are consistent with Bell’s palsy and the patient has responded to treatment. Neurology referral is also not necessary unless there is doubt about the initial diagnosis or if there are other clinical features suggestive of stroke. It is important to monitor patients with persistent symptoms and refer them to a specialist if necessary. Simply reassuring the patient may not be appropriate in cases where specialist review is required.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old, fit and healthy, emmetropic woman comes to your clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old, fit and healthy, emmetropic woman comes to your clinic with a complaint of blurring near vision for the past three months. She reports that reading and computer work is causing discomfort in her eyes. However, she states that her distance vision is still excellent, and she has no difficulty watching television or driving. Both eyes appear healthy and white, and she seems at ease. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Refer him to an optometrist routinely

      Explanation:

      Managing Presbyopia in Elderly Patients

      As people age, their eyes undergo changes that can affect their vision. One of these changes is presbyopia, which can cause difficulty with near vision. In the case of an elderly patient with good vision, presbyopia may be the culprit behind their near vision problems. To manage this condition, it is recommended to refer the patient to an optometrist for a proper refraction. Additionally, trying the patient on reading glasses can help alleviate their symptoms. By addressing presbyopia in elderly patients, we can help them maintain their quality of life and independence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired glucose tolerance. By the time she visits you she has succeeded in losing 3 kg in weight. You decide to give her a trial of orlistat and behavioural therapy.
      What is the mode of action of orlistat?

      Your Answer: Orlistat is a centrally acting appetite suppressant

      Correct Answer: Orlistat is a pancreatic and gastric lipase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Orlistat: A Weight Loss Medication

      Orlistat is a medication that inhibits the breakdown and absorption of dietary fat by blocking pancreatic lipase. This means that the fat ingested by a person taking orlistat continues to pass through their gut. However, if the patient doesn’t maintain a low-fat diet, they may experience oily diarrhoea.

      Orlistat is typically used in combination with a low-fat diet for individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or higher, or for those with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or higher who have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, or hypercholesterolaemia. It is important to note that orlistat should be used in conjunction with other lifestyle measures to manage obesity.

      If a person taking orlistat has lost at least 5% of their initial body weight since starting the medication, it may be continued beyond three months. However, treatment should only be continued beyond 12 months, usually to maintain weight loss, after discussing potential benefits and limitations with the patient. It is also important to note that weight loss may gradually reverse upon stopping orlistat.

      In conclusion, orlistat is a weight loss medication that can be effective when used in combination with a low-fat diet and other lifestyle measures. However, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and limitations with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

      Which statement is true of notifiable diseases?

      Your Answer: Mumps is not a notifiable disease

      Correct Answer: Notification is a statutory duty

      Explanation:

      Disease Notification and Surveillance

      The notification of diseases has a long history, dating back to the great epidemics of the past. With improvements in hygiene and vaccination, infectious diseases have become less common, and many GP disease notification returns are inconsistent. However, it is still a legal obligation to report diseases. It is also essential that hospitals are informed of potential infectious diseases when patients are referred. The government uses various data sources for disease surveillance and increasingly relies on electronic data returns. Mumps remains a risk to unimmunised populations.

      Mumps: Epidemiology, Surveillance, and Control

      Mumps is a viral infection that can cause swelling of the salivary glands, fever, and headache. It is still a risk to unimmunised populations. To control the spread of mumps, it is essential to have effective epidemiology, surveillance, and control measures in place. This includes reporting cases to health authorities, monitoring outbreaks, and promoting vaccination. With the help of electronic data returns and other surveillance methods, it is possible to track the spread of mumps and take appropriate action to prevent further transmission. By working together, we can reduce the impact of mumps and other infectious diseases on our communities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently...

    Correct

    • A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'

      Explanation:

      The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 53-year-old man presents with a 3-days-history of left-sided facial droop. He denies...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old man presents with a 3-days-history of left-sided facial droop. He denies any associated facial pain, eye symptoms or neurological symptoms. There is no history of trauma.

      Upon examination, there is a unilateral facial weakness involving the entire left side of his face. He is unable to fully close his left eye. The remainder of the neurological examination is unremarkable. There are no rashes on his ears, face or mouth. His neck is soft with no palpable swellings or lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence on a course of prednisolone and give eye care advice

      Explanation:

      For a patient presenting with Bell’s palsy and eye symptoms, it is important to commence on a course of prednisolone and provide eye care advice. Lubricating eye drops should be used frequently during the day, eye ointment used at night, and the affected eye should be taped closed at night using microporous tape. Aciclovir may be considered if Ramsay Hunt syndrome is suspected. Referral to an ophthalmologist is advised if the patient reports eye symptoms. Urgent referral to an appropriate specialist is necessary if the patient has worsening neurologic findings, features suggestive of an upper motor neurone cause, features suggestive of cancer, systemic or severe local infection, or trauma. However, none of these features are present in this patient.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer: You must allow her to return but can specify full time hours only

      Correct Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period

      Explanation:

      Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women

      The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.

      Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide...

    Incorrect

    • After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide proof to evaluate their ability to practice?

      Your Answer: Every 10 years

      Correct Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines relicensing and recertification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient with a connective tissue disorder is seen by a rheumatologist...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient with a connective tissue disorder is seen by a rheumatologist and started on hydroxychloroquine.

      Which of the following is recommended in relation to monitoring this medication?

      Your Answer: Formal ophthalmic examination

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine and Ophthalmic Screening Guidelines

      The Royal College of Ophthalmologists and the British National Formulary have established guidelines for hydroxychloroquine retinopathy. Patients who are planned for long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment should undergo a baseline ophthalmic examination within 6-12 months of starting treatment. Annual screening is recommended for patients who have taken hydroxychloroquine for more than 5 years. However, annual screening can be initiated before 5 years if additional risk factors are present, such as concomitant tamoxifen use, impaired renal function, or high-dose hydroxychloroquine therapy (dose greater than 5mg/kg/day). There is no need for an annual ECG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not responded to OTC or prescribed treatments. As per the guidelines of the British Association of Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), what is the minimum frequency of yearly episodes required to diagnose recurrent vaginal candidiasis?

      Your Answer: Four or more episodes per year

      Explanation:

      According to BASHH, recurrent vaginal candidiasis is characterized by experiencing four or more episodes per year. This criterion is significant as it helps determine the need for prophylactic treatment to prevent future recurrences.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who...

    Correct

    • What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?

      Your Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists

      Explanation:

      Malaria Risk and Prevention

      Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a long-acting muscarinic antagonist

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a check-up. She is anxious about his flat feet and is worried that he may experience foot pain and gait problems in the future. During the examination, the child walks normally, but an absent medial arch of the feet and genu valgum are observed when he stands still.

      What recommendations should be provided to the mother?

      Your Answer: Common findings at this age, reassure

      Explanation:

      Flat feet (pes planus) and ‘knock knees’ (genu valgum) are common in children of this age and typically resolve on their own between the ages of 4-8 years. Therefore, reassurance should be given to the mother and orthopaedic or podiatry assessment is not necessarily required. However, if the parents are highly anxious, a paediatrician can be consulted for further reassurance. Additionally, physiotherapy is not necessary as there is no significant musculoskeletal abnormality to correct.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral sensorineural deafness. She has no prior history of ear issues and is not currently taking any medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière's disease

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Unilateral Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Idiopathic unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss (ISSHL) is a rare condition characterized by a sudden loss of hearing in one ear, often accompanied by tinnitus, vertigo, and aural fullness. The exact cause of ISSHL is not well understood, but it may be linked to viral infections, vascular issues, or immune-mediated inner ear disease.

      Patients with ISSHL should be referred for urgent treatment, typically involving corticosteroids. Other treatment options include low molecular weight dextran, carbogen, hyperbaric oxygen, low-density lipid apheresis, aciclovir, and stellate ganglion block. However, there is limited evidence to support the effectiveness of any one treatment.

      Many patients with ISSHL are admitted to the hospital, but fortunately, spontaneous recovery rates are generally good. Studies have reported recovery rates ranging from 47-63%, although different criteria for recovery were used in each study.

      In summary, ISSHL is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. While treatment options exist, the evidence for their effectiveness is limited, and many patients may recover spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has been using the progestogen-only pill for the past 4 years. She is currently amenorrhoeic. She is not sure how long she should continue to use contraception for and asks your advice.

      She was seen two months ago by a colleague who advised her to have her FSH levels checked. This has shown an FSH level of 42 (normal range: less than 30).

      What do you advise?

      Your Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then contraception can be stopped immediately

      Correct Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then she can stop contraception in 1 year

      Explanation:

      FSH Testing for Women on Contraception

      Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare suggests that women using progestogen-only contraception can have their FSH levels measured, but only if they are over 50 years old. However, a single elevated FSH reading is not enough to determine ovarian failure. If FSH levels are consistently above 30, contraception can be stopped after a year. It’s important to note that amenorrhea alone is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure in women taking exogenous hormones. Additionally, for women using combined hormones, FSH testing during a hormone-free period is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure. Proper testing and monitoring are crucial for women on contraception to ensure their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old lady, who has a history of hay fever, visited your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady, who has a history of hay fever, visited your clinic complaining of bilateral itchy, watery, and red eyes that have been bothering her for the past three days. She reported no discharge and no changes in her vision. You prescribed topical ocular mast cell stabilizers, but she returned two days later, stating that her symptoms have not improved. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist

      Correct Answer: Continue with the same treatment

      Explanation:

      Vernal Conjunctivitis and Treatment Options

      A patient with a history of hay fever who presents with itchy, red, and watery eyes may be suffering from vernal conjunctivitis, which is often associated with hay fever or atopy. In such cases, topical mast cell stabilizers are a good option for treatment. However, it is important to inform the patient that the drops may not take immediate effect and may take a few days to work. Ocular topical antibiotics would not be appropriate for vernal conjunctivitis. If the condition worsens despite treatment, ophthalmology referral should be considered. It is important to note that vernal conjunctivitis is a chronic condition that requires long-term management, and patients should be advised accordingly. By providing appropriate treatment and advice, clinicians can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A couple in their early 30s come to see you to discuss family...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their early 30s come to see you to discuss family planning. They have one child who is 4-years-old and was diagnosed one year ago with cystic fibrosis.

      Both the parents are healthy and were previously informed that any future pregnancies would also be at risk of being affected by cystic fibrosis. They have been considering the possibility of having another child but are uncertain about the likelihood of another child being affected.

      What is the probability of them having another child with cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that is inherited when both parents carry the gene. If both parents are carriers, there is a 50% chance that their future child will also be a carrier, a 25% chance of the child being affected by the condition, and a 25% chance of having a normal child who is neither a carrier nor affected.

      In cases where both parents have had a previous affected child and are healthy adults, it is important to seek specialist referral for genetic counseling. This will provide accurate information and support to help make informed decisions about the chances of the child being affected or a carrier. Understanding the inheritance of cystic fibrosis is crucial in making informed decisions about family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Defecation

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, suggesting reduced bone mineral density. His consultant wishes to calculate his Z-score.

      Which patient factors are required to calculate this?

      Your Answer: Age, gender, BMI

      Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity

      Explanation:

      When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density with that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

    He is a smoker...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

      He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has smoked for 30 years.

      To how many pack years does this equate?

      Your Answer: 3000

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pack Year History

      Pack year history is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day (20 cigarettes in one pack) by the number of years of smoking. For instance, if someone smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15). This tool helps to standardize tobacco exposure and provide a clearer understanding of the potential risks associated with smoking. By knowing one’s pack year history, healthcare professionals can better assess the potential health consequences and provide appropriate care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year old male presented to the emergency department with a 4 month...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old male presented to the emergency department with a 4 month history of bilateral paraesthesias and twitching in his thumb, first finger, and lateral forearm. He reported no history of trauma. An MRI scan of his spine showed cervical canal stenosis with mild cord compression. He was discharged and instructed to follow up with his primary care physician. What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to physiology services and review in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery services

      Explanation:

      Patients initially diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome who later underwent surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. Decompressive surgery is the primary treatment option and has been shown to halt disease progression. While physiotherapy and analgesia may be used alongside surgical intervention, they do not replace the need for surgical opinion. Nerve root injections are not effective in managing this condition. A study by Behrbalk et al. (2013) highlights the importance of timely diagnosis by primary care physicians.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators

      Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise

      Explanation:

      Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma

      This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread body aches. He reports experiencing stiffness and difficulty reaching items above eye level, particularly in the morning. His ESR is elevated at 72.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Elevated ESR and its association with inflammatory diseases and malignancy

      ESR, or erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in inflammatory disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica, which are associated with other raised inflammatory markers like fibrinogen. It is also seen in malignancy, particularly myeloma.

      Apart from these conditions, ESR tends to increase with age, with the normal ESR being roughly half of the age. Females also tend to have higher ESR levels.

      When a patient presents with vague bony aches, a markedly elevated ESR may suggest myeloma or polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica predominantly affects the shoulder girdle, while systemic lupus erythematosus has a higher incidence in women. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, usually presents with swollen joints in the hands and feet and morning stiffness.

      In summary, elevated ESR levels can be indicative of various inflammatory diseases and malignancy, and should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is considered a 'red flag' that requires urgent specialist referral for suspected...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered a 'red flag' that requires urgent specialist referral for suspected cancer?

      Your Answer: A 48-year-old man with painless visible haematuria without UTI

      Correct Answer: A 55-year-old woman who had an episode of post menopausal bleeding whilst on HRT

      Explanation:

      Early Detection of Cancer in Primary Care

      Early detection of cancer in primary care is crucial for improving survival and outcomes. Clinicians rely on identifying ‘red flag’ symptoms that should prompt urgent referral for specialist investigation. NICE guidelines have been published to help clinicians identify these symptoms and clarify who should be referred with speed. For instance, people aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral.

      In some cases, urgent referral is not necessary, but careful monitoring and follow-up are required. For example, a 50-year-old woman with bilateral eczematous skin on her left breast should be treated with topical treatment for the eczematous patch and referred if the eczema doesn’t respond to treatment. However, unilateral eczema around the nipple could represent Paget’s disease and would warrant urgent referral.

      Similarly, any postmenopausal woman who presents with vaginal bleeding should be referred urgently immediately. If a woman on hormone replacement therapy presents with postmenopausal bleeding, the HRT should be stopped, and an urgent referral made if any persistent or unexplained bleeding doesn’t resolve over a six-week period.

      In some cases, further investigation is required before referral. For instance, a 70-year-old man with a persistent cough for the last four weeks that is not improving should be referred for an urgent chest x-ray. Further management/investigation would depend on the results of the x-ray and the pattern of any ongoing symptoms. Immediate urgent referral for suspected cancer is not indicated at this point.

      Finally, it is essential to consider other factors that could explain the symptoms. For example, a 39-year-old’s low Hb could be explained by her menorrhagia. Overall, early detection of cancer in primary care requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and appropriate referral pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      79.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (3/5) 60%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/3) 67%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed