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Question 1
Correct
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What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town in England, with England and Wales as the comparison standard?
Your Answer: The town has 25% more deaths than expected if age specific death rates for England and Wales are applied to the population
Explanation:Understanding Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)
To compare mortality rates in different populations, we use the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR). This ratio compares the observed deaths in a study population to the number of deaths that would be expected if the standard population’s age-specific mortality rates were applied. The result is multiplied by 100 for convenience, but SMR is not a rate or percentage. An SMR of 100 means the study population has the same number of deaths as expected by national standards. A value less than 100 indicates fewer observed deaths than expected, while a value greater than 100 indicates more observed deaths than expected.
The SMR is useful for comparing different towns, cities, or districts, as well as certain groups like social classes. It can also be used for serial comparisons over several years. The data used to calculate SMR is age-standardized, so it corrects for differences in age structures between populations. This means that the crude death rate, which doesn’t use age-specific data, may not necessarily be higher in the study population. Age-specific data is crucial in correcting for differences in age structures and allows for more accurate comparisons of mortality rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Correct
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A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly patients with a history of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is discussed at a geriatric medicine conference that you attend. The speaker suggests that there may be a publication bias affecting the results.
What statistical method, graph or examination would be the most effective in exploring the speaker's hypothesis?Your Answer: Funnel plot
Explanation:A funnel plot is the correct tool to use when evaluating meta-analyses for publication bias. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis, with an asymmetrical funnel indicating the presence of publication bias or small study effects. In contrast, a box and whisker plot is not an appropriate test for publication bias, as it primarily displays quartiles, median, and variability. Similarly, the chi-square test and Kruskal-Wallis test are not suitable for investigating publication bias, as they are designed to evaluate binary outcomes and compare means of independent groups, respectively.
Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses
Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).
In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 3
Incorrect
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In the UK, there are several screening programs for significant health concerns, such as prostate cancer. A new screening test for prostate cancer is being assessed in comparison to the traditional use of PSA testing. There are concerns that this test may lead to overdiagnosis and overtreatment, as it detects many cases of prostate cancer that may never cause harm.
What type of bias is this?Your Answer: Length time bias
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Lead-time bias occurs when a new test for a disease is compared to an older test, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier. However, this earlier diagnosis doesn’t necessarily lead to an improvement in the outcome of the disease.
Length time bias is a phenomenon where a disease may progress at different rates, and slower-growing or less aggressive diseases have a higher chance of being detected through screening than faster-growing or more aggressive diseases.
Self-selection or volunteer bias occurs when people who participate in screening programs are not representative of the general population. Typically, those who participate in screening programs tend to have a higher socio-economic status and engage in other healthy lifestyle choices.
Procedure bias is a type of bias that can occur in comparative studies. It happens when patients are treated differently based on their group allocation.
Recall bias is a type of bias that can affect the accuracy of data collected retrospectively. For example, when examining past asbestos exposure, a patient may not be able to accurately recall the exact years they were exposed.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
Explanation:Type II error – the false hypothesis is not rejected when it is true.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Correct
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A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and breast cancer. What is the typical measure of outcome in a cohort study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:The relative risk is typically the outcome measure used in cohort studies.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Correct
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A test that seems to assess its intended purpose upon initial examination is referred to as having which of the following qualities?
Your Answer: Good face validity
Explanation:A test that seems to measure what it is intended to measure has strong face validity.
Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:
Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950
What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing
Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 8
Correct
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You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.
When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests
The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.
Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old individual seeks your guidance on mental wellness. They were interested in trying mindfulness until they stumbled upon a study that demonstrated no impact. Upon reading the study, a randomized controlled trial with only 10 participants and no mention of a power calculation, it was found that there was no difference between mindfulness and no intervention for mental well-being.
What potential error could have taken place in this study?Your Answer: Type II error
Explanation:Increasing the sample size can reduce the likelihood of type II error and increase the power of the study.
Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies
Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.
Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. They aim to enroll approximately 1000 individuals with the condition to determine if the drug is more effective than the current treatment in reducing disease activity.
What stage of the clinical trial process does this treatment fall under?Your Answer: Phase 1
Correct Answer: Phase 3
Explanation:Phase 3 trials involve conducting larger studies on real patients to compare the effectiveness of a new treatment with the existing treatment options. These studies typically involve more than 1000 patients and aim to determine the efficacy of the new treatment in comparison to the licensed treatment for the same condition.
Stages of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.
Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.
Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.
If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.
In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterol-lowering drug for the primary prevention of coronary heart disease was conducted. It had a five-year follow up period.
The results showed an absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI), in the group receiving placebo, was 10 per cent. The relative risk reduction of those given the cholesterol lowering medication was 0.8.
Approximately what number of patients will need to be treated with the drug for ten years to prevent one myocardial infarction?Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:Understanding Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
Number needed to treat (NNT) is a calculation used to determine how many patients need to be treated with a particular intervention to prevent one adverse outcome. To calculate NNT, you need to know the absolute risk of the adverse outcome in the control group, as well as the relative risk reduction achieved with the intervention.
For example, if the absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI) in a control group is 10%, and the relative risk reduction achieved with a cholesterol-lowering agent is 80%, then the NNT can be calculated as follows:
– The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is 0.80 x 0.10 = 0.08
– The NNT is 1/ARR = 1/0.08 = 12.5, which is rounded up to 13Alternatively, you can work with real numbers to understand the concept of NNT. For instance, if a group of 100 patients is treated with the cholesterol-lowering agent, there would be a reduction in MI events by 80% (of 10 patients) = 8 patients. The number of patients suffering an MI in the treatment group would therefore be 10 – 8 = 2 patients. This means that treating 100 patients with the new drug would result in eight fewer MIs, and the NNT would be 100/8 = 12.5 patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the term for a drug that has its own effects but doesn't treat the condition it is prescribed for?
Your Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment for osteoporosis in elderly patients.
A recently performed randomised control trial has looked at using the new treatment in preventing vertebral fractures in patients over 70 years old. They leave you a copy of a study for you to read in more detail.
On reading the paper, you see that there were 8,000 patients in both the treatment and control arms of the study. The number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the treatment arm was 200 and the number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the control arm was 250.
What is the number needed to treat with the new drug in order to prevent one vertebral fracture in elderly patients over 70 years old?Your Answer: 500
Correct Answer: 200
Explanation:Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a useful measure in determining the effectiveness of a treatment. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one additional event, such as a disease or complication. This takes into account the absolute risk of the event, making it a clinically meaningful way of comparing different interventions.
To calculate the NNT, we first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR). This is done by subtracting the absolute risk of events in the control group from the absolute risk of events in the treatment group. For example, if 350 out of 10,000 patients in the control group sustained a vertebral fracture (3.5%), and 300 out of 10,000 patients in the treatment group sustained a vertebral fracture (3%), the ARR would be 0.5%.
The NNT is then calculated by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. In this case, the NNT would be 1/0.5% = 200. This means that 200 patients would need to be treated with the new drug to prevent one vertebral fracture. Understanding the NNT can help clinicians make informed decisions about the most effective treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?
Your Answer: Patients with antisocial personality disorder have a mortality rate similar to the normal population
Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant
Explanation:The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.
Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio
The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.
An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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How would you define a placebo?
Your Answer: An inert substance given as a medicine in an assessment of its suggestive effect
Correct Answer: A standard treatment against which a newer treatment is compared
Explanation:The Psychological Effect of Placebos
A placebo is a substance or treatment that has no therapeutic effect but is given to a patient or participant in a clinical trial. When administered, it typically produces a psychological effect rather than a physical one. This means that the patient or participant may experience a perceived improvement in their symptoms or condition due to the belief that they are receiving a real treatment. The psychological effect of placebos is often referred to as the placebo effect and can be powerful enough to produce measurable changes in the body, such as a decrease in pain or an increase in dopamine levels. However, it is important to note that the placebo effect is not a substitute for real medical treatment and should not be relied upon as such.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test for detecting heart disease in patients over the age of 50. The contingency table below shows the results for a group of patients who were tested:
Heart disease present Heart disease absent
Test positive 120 15
Test negative 10 255
What is the positive predictive value of the new screening test for detecting heart disease (rounded to 2 decimal places)?Your Answer: 0.97
Correct Answer: 0.94
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is a measure of the probability that a patient has a particular condition (such as pancreatic cancer) if a diagnostic test (such as a tumour marker test) is positive. To calculate the PPV, the formula TP / (TP + FP) is used, where TP represents the number of true positives (patients who have the condition and test positive) and FP represents the number of false positives (patients who test positive but do not have the condition). For example, if there are 155 true positives and 10 false positives, the PPV would be calculated as 0.94.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 18
Correct
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A GP is concerned about the number of cases of hypertension he is seeing in his practice. He conducts a search of the practice records to investigate further. In the practice population of 15000 patients, he identifies 200 patients with a diagnosis of hypertension, with 20 of those diagnosed between 1st January 2021 and 31st December 2021. He also notes four deaths in the past year with hypertension named on part one of the death certificate.
What was the incidence of hypertension for the year 2021 in this GP practice?Your Answer: 43 per 100,000
Explanation:The incidence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 43 per 100,000, as there were 6 new cases in the year out of a total population of 14,000. The proportion of patients with cirrhosis who received the diagnosis within the last year is 0.075, or 6 out of 80 patients. The prevalence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 0.00571, or 80 out of 14,000 patients.
Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man seeks your guidance on quitting smoking and mentions his interest in using electronic cigarettes as a cessation aid. You recall reading a study that compared electronic cigarettes to nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation. The study involved primary care patients who were randomly assigned to either the intervention or control group.
What type of bias could potentially threaten the validity of this study?Your Answer: Attrition bias
Correct Answer: Selection bias
Explanation:Selection bias is a term used to describe the non-random assignment of patients to a study group, which can result in systematic differences in the baseline characteristics of the groups being compared. Randomisation is an effective way to prevent selection bias, but if it is not done properly, selection bias can occur. For example, if patients attending a primary care practice were allocated to an intervention or control group based on factors such as their smoking habits, this could lead to systematic differences in baseline characteristics. Attrition bias and performance bias are not the same as selection bias, as they refer to different types of systematic differences between groups in a study.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Correct
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You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places to reduce viral upper respiratory tract infections among elderly individuals. The study found that the treatment group, who wore a mask, had fewer cases compared to the control group who did not wear a mask. The absolute risk in the control group was 0.5 whereas the absolute risk in the treatment group was 0.3.
What is the number needed to treat for elderly individuals in this study?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The formula for calculating the number needed to treat is to divide one by the absolute risk reduction. The absolute risk reduction is determined by subtracting the absolute risk in the control group from the absolute risk in the treatment group. For example, if the absolute risk in the control group is 0.3 and the absolute risk in the treatment group is 0.5, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.2. Therefore, the number needed to treat would be one divided by 0.2, which equals five.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 22
Correct
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You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly population and determine if there has been exposure to a particular risk factor.
Which study design would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Case-control
Explanation:The most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This study design allows for the retrospective identification of patients who have developed the disease and compares their past exposure to suspected causal factors with controls who do not have the disease. A cohort study, which follows patients into the future, is not suitable for this scenario as the aim is to trace the cause of the outbreak. A cross-sectional study provides a snapshot of the condition and exposures in the overall population at a set time, but it is not suitable for finding the cause of the outbreak. Randomized controlled trials are not appropriate as there are no interventions being studied. Meta-analysis is not applicable as there is no mention of other research to review.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of a dataset from its average?
Your Answer: Standard deviation
Correct Answer: Mode
Explanation:Understanding Statistical Terms in Evidence-Based Medicine
A basic understanding of statistical terms is essential in comprehending trial data and utilizing evidence-based medicine effectively. One of the most crucial statistical terms is the standard deviation, which measures the dispersion of a data set from its mean. It summarizes how widely dispersed the values are around the center of a group.
Another important term is the mode, which refers to the most frequently occurring value in a data set. The range describes the spread of data in terms of its highest and lowest values. On the other hand, the 95% confidence interval (or 95% confidence limits) presents the range of likely effects and includes 95% of results from studies of the same size and design in the same population.
Lastly, the weighted mean difference examines the difference in means between different sets of values, weighted for differences in the way they were recorded. Understanding these statistical terms is crucial in interpreting and analyzing trial data and making informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting blood glucose levels range from 7-10, and his HbA1c result is 64 mmol/mol (normal range 20-42) despite following a diabetic diet and exercising regularly. He has a body mass index of 30. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?
Your Answer: Insulin glargine once daily
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for suboptimal Glucose Control in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk of micro- and macrovascular complications due to suboptimal glucose control, as evidenced by an HbA1c of greater than 48 mmol/mol despite lifestyle intervention. The initial treatment of choice is metformin, which aims to achieve a HbA1c of less than 48 mmol/mol. Metformin reduces insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk, as demonstrated in the UKPDS study.
If metformin is inappropriate, DPPIV inhibitors such as sitagliptin may be considered. These medications achieve glycaemic control without significant weight gain and do not promote hypoglycaemia. Pioglitazone or an SU may also be used as alternative treatment options where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. It is important to reach target HbA1c levels to reduce the risk of complications associated with type 2 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?
Your Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means
ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.
The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.
In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago with a myocardial infarction. He is now readmitted complaining of breathlessness on minimal exertion.
He is diagnosed with left ventricular failure, and given furosemide, which produces a marked improvement. Echocardiogram shows poor left ventricular function and wall motion abnormalities.
Which of the following drugs would be most expected to improve survival in this man?Your Answer: Ace inhibitors
Explanation:The Benefits of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors in Heart Failure Management
Studies have shown that the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can increase survival rates in heart failure patients. These inhibitors work by blocking the action of angiotensin converting enzyme, which leads to a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. This results in a decrease in left ventricular afterload, an increase in cardiac output, and a decreased tendency towards left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors are believed to encourage vascular remodelling. However, it is important to note that first dose hypotension may occur, particularly when diuretics are also being administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You plan to investigate the effectiveness of a new asthma management programme for children aged 6-12 years. The programme is not implemented in all of the clinics in the region. What study design would be most suitable to determine the programme's effectiveness?
Your Answer: Looking at improvements in target achievement over time in an intervention surgery only
Correct Answer: Comparing average target achievement for CV risk factors in intervention surgeries, versus target achievement over a historical period prior to introduction of the programme
Explanation:Appropriate Study Designs for Type 2 Diabetes Management
Historical controls are not suitable for evaluating the management of type 2 diabetes as targets have become more stringent over time. Additionally, it is not valid to assess an intervention without a comparator. National targets do not consider local factors such as ethnicity, deprivation, and resource provision. Therefore, the most appropriate study design is to compare the intervention’s effect in surgeries versus local controls, matched for other resources, age mix, ethnic mix, and social deprivation level.
Cross-over trials are ideal when there is reasonable evidence that patients will benefit from the treatment, and it would be unethical to withhold it from all patients. These trials are also useful when the treatment effect can be observed quickly. By using appropriate study designs, researchers can accurately evaluate the effectiveness of type 2 diabetes management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods of economic evaluation utilize the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER)?
Your Answer: Cost-minimisation analysis
Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Inputs in Economic Evaluation Studies
In economic evaluation studies, inputs refer to the resources used in delivering a healthcare intervention. There are three main types of costs associated with these inputs: direct, indirect, and intangible costs. Direct costs are those that are directly related to the intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, and travel costs for the patient. Indirect costs are those that are incurred due to the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work or reduced work productivity, as well as time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are those that are difficult to measure, such as pain or suffering experienced by the patient.
Understanding the different types of costs is important in economic evaluation studies as it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the costs associated with a healthcare intervention. By considering all types of costs, decision-makers can make informed decisions about the most cost-effective interventions to implement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Correct
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A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize to elderly patient populations. This test can be said to have poor:
External validity
54%
Predictive validity
16%
Construct validity
9%
Divergent validity
14%
Face validity
8%
Good external validity means that the results of a study generalize well to other populations, including the elderly.Your Answer: External validity
Explanation:When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.
Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is accurate concerning the placebo effect?
Your Answer: Active placebos are no more effective than inert placebos
Correct Answer: The placebo response is greater in mild rather than severe illness
Explanation:The observed placebo response rate in published studies is on the rise, which is believed to be due to a larger number of patients with less severe forms of illness being included in these studies.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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