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  • Question 1 - A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field of vision with flashes of lights and subsequent loss of vision, which prompted her to visit her ophthalmologist. What do you think is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Surgery to retina

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Flashes of light, presence of floaters and loss of vision (often described as a black curtain closing in on the visual field) are symptoms that strongly indicate retinal detachment. The fundoscopy findings of retinal tears support this diagnosis. Therefore, surgery of retina must be done to treat this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.
      Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.

      Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre.
      Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.

      Management of alcoholism:
      Nutritional support:
      – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.
      Pharmacological management:
      – Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
      – Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
      – Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV/AIDS

      Explanation:

      Given the symptoms described in a 31-year-old homosexual male, along with the findings of weight loss, blurred vision, and retinal hemorrhage, the single most appropriate option to consider is HIV/AIDS.

      HIV/AIDS can manifest with a wide range of symptoms, including unintentional weight loss and blurred vision. Retinal hemorrhage can also occur as a complication of HIV/AIDS, particularly in advanced stages when the immune system is severely compromised.

      In this case, it’s important to conduct further diagnostic tests, including HIV testing, to confirm the diagnosis. Additionally, prompt initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial for managing HIV/AIDS and preventing further complications. Referral to an infectious disease specialist for comprehensive management is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea manum

      Explanation:

      Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands.

      Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis.

      Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp.

      Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG

      Explanation:

      To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old gentleman is found dead in his apartment. He was known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is found dead in his apartment. He was known to be suffering from primary systemic amyloidosis. What is the most probable cause for his death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac involvement

      Explanation:

      Primary amyloidosis is characterised by abnormal protein build-up in the tissues and organ such as the heart, liver, spleen, kidneys, skin, ligaments, and nerves. However, the most common cause of death in patients with primary amyloidosis is heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain

      Explanation:

      Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
      Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is elevated at 345 pg/ml (NR 25-65), phosphate 2.13 mmol/l and corrected calcium 2.01 mmol/l.   Of the following, which is most likely responsible for renal osteodystrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diminished activity of renal 1-α-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Renal osteodystrophy is a metabolic bone disease often affecting long-term dialysis patients. The kidneys are no longer able to maintain the calcium levels in the blood, thus the PTH increases as the body attempts to raise blood calcium levels. Osteomalacia in these cases is most likely caused by the diminished activity of renal 1-a-hydroxylase that is important for hydroxylation of Calciferol to calcitriol (Vitamin D). This bioactive form of Vitamin D is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 11 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the last year. She had been otherwise healthy apart from recent difficulty hearing her lecturer in classes. She took no prescription medication but had occasionally taken cocaine during her first year of college. She also admits to drinking up to 30 units of alcohol per week and smoked 10 cigarettes per day. Her parents were both well, but her father's sister had problems with walking before she died. Examination reveals normal tone and power throughout all four limbs. Reflexes were normal in the upper limbs but decreased at the knees and absent at the ankles. Coordination was normal in all four limbs but her gait was ataxic. Sensation in the upper limbs was normal but decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception was noted to the ankles bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that usually begins before the end of the teens. It has an estimated prevalence in Europe of 1 in 50,000 and life expectancy is around 40–50 years. Neurological features include a progressive ataxia, cerebellar dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception, and pyramidal weakness. Pes cavus and scoliosis are also both seen. Cardiomyopathy occurs in over 70% of cases. Less common features include optic atrophic, diabetes mellitus, and deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal. What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain. She has also noticed that her skin seems slightly yellower over the last week or so and you notice a yellow tinge to her sclera. On further questioning, she complains of itching of her arms. Her only past medical history of note includes ulcerative colitis for which she takes mesalazine. Given her presentation, what is the best investigation to diagnose the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

      Explanation:

      With biliary obstructive symptoms in a patient with ulcerative colitis, one should immediately think of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts. The best diagnostic test for PSC is ERCP. ANCA antibiotics may be positive, but not the best test to DIAGNOSE THE CONDITION. The same can be said of serum transaminase levels– they will be abnormal but nonspecific. While a liver ultrasound may be helpful, it is not the best test. Liver biopsy would be used to stage the PSC later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows: Hb: 8.6 g/dL, WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L, Plts: 18 x 10^9/L, Coagulation profile: deranged, Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

      Other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.

      2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.

      3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.

      4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made. What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast. Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.

      Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
      Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.

      Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.

      Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.

      Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.

      Treatment of opioid overdose:
      Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
      Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
      Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 21 year old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin. The wheals are of all sizes and they are exacerbated by scratching. The symptoms started after a viral infection and can last up to an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urticaria

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a group of disorders that share a distinct skin reaction pattern, namely the occurrence of itchy wheals anywhere on the skin. Wheals are short-lived elevated erythematous lesions ranging from a few millimetres to several centimetres in diameter and can become confluent. The itching can be prickling or burning and is usually worse in the evening or night time. Triggering of urticaria by infections has been discussed for many years but the exact role and pathogenesis of mast cell activation by infectious processes is unclear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.

      Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.
      If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.

      COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Each one of the following statements regarding atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except:...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following statements regarding atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a 28-amino acid peptide that is synthesized, stored, and released by atrial myocytes in response to atrial distension, angiotensin II stimulation, endothelin, and sympathetic stimulation (beta-adrenoceptor mediated). ANP is synthesized and secreted by cardiac muscle cells in the walls of the atria in the heart. The main physiological actions of natriuretic peptides is to reduce arterial pressure by decreasing blood volume and systemic vascular resistance. It causes a reduction in expanded extracellular fluid (ECF) volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following findings is most consistently seen in PCOS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts on ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is based on hyperandrogenism or chronic anovulation in the absence of specific pituitary and/or adrenal disease.
      Pelvic ultrasonography may be very helpful in the evaluation as well, but polycystic ovaries are not specific for PCOS with over 20% of “normal” women having this finding. The number of follicles and ovary volume are both important in the ultrasound evaluation. The criteria for PCOS put forth by Adams et al. are the most often cited: the presence of ≥10 cysts measuring 2–8 mm around a dense core of stroma or scattered within an increased amount of stroma.
      A recent proposal to modify these criteria has been put forth by Jonard et al.: “increased ovarian area (>5.5cm2) or volume (>11 mL) and/or presence of ≥12 follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter (mean of both ovaries)”.
      These criteria have a specificity of 99% and a sensitivity of 75% for the diagnosis of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered

      Explanation:

      Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.

      Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
      Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
      Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
      Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea. Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
      Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.

      In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.

      Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows: Oxygen saturation 99% on air Heart rate 98 beats/minute Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute Temperature 37.9 °C What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.

      Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 31 - A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 34 - A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Herpes Simplex infection. Topical Acyclovir can be used in early stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 55 yr. old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was admitted with a history of fever for the past 2 weeks. On investigation, his echocardiography revealed a small vegetation around the mitral valve. His blood culture was positive for Streptococcus viridans. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      According to the American Heart Association (AHA) penicillin-susceptible S viridans, S bovis, and other streptococci (MIC of penicillin of ≤0.1 mcg/mL) should be treated with penicillin G or ceftriaxone or penicillin G + a gentamicin combination or vancomycin (if allergy to penicillin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 37 - A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family history, presents with a history of early morning headache and visual field defects, When asked, he said that he has been having these complaints for three months now. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is a pituitary tumour. Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasm inferiorly and can cause visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia or quadrantanopia). Temporal arteritis usually develops in older people and acute glaucoma usually requires a family history. Amaurosis fugax is classed as a stroke and usually leads to reversible unilateral vision loss. A subconjunctival haemorrhage does not typically produce the symptoms described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 38 - A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ascending limb of loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are not permeable to water. The tubular fluid thus becomes increasingly dilute as it ascends toward the cortex, whereas the interstitial fluid around the loops of Henle in the medulla becomes increasingly more concentrated.

      The ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 40 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
      The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 41 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed. What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25–0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease on rectal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patchy inflammation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 43 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP =...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.

      Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 44 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Incorrect

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 46 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 47 - A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 48 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 49 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 50 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure. Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l. A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology. Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 51 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14).

      Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.

      Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
      1. t(9;22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia
      2. t(15;17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
      3. t(14;18)—Follicular Lymphoma
      4. t(11;14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 52 - A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by redness of the eyes, and difficulty opening his eyes in the morning. What is the single most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Redness of the eyes can present in all of the conditions. However, the green sticky discharge that causes the eyelids to stick together overnight is characteristic of bacterial conjunctivitis. Bacterial conjunctivitis is an inflammatory condition of the conjunctiva in which bacteria commonly Staphylococcus Aureus invade the conjunctiva. The person experiences a foreign body feeling in the eye and mucopurulent or purulent discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 53 - Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: is treated with radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
      Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.

      Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.

      Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 54 - A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 56 - A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full blood count and viscosity were normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy was unremarkable. What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, with various durations. It is a functional, not organic, problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms. Full colonoscopy is not warranted at this time, neither is a barium enema. A wheat-free diet is not likely to help as there is no evidence they have an allergy to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 57 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 58 - A 68 yr. old male with history of poorly controlled hypertension was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 yr. old male with history of poorly controlled hypertension was admitted with shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea for three months. He was diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure and was started on digoxin 62.5 μg daily, furosemide 80mg daily and amiloride 10mg daily. On admission his lab results showed that his serum urea was 6 mmol/L and serum creatinine was 115 μmol/L. One month later he came for a follow up consultation. On examination he had bilateral ankle oedema. His blood pressure was 138/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 92 bpm. His JVP was not elevated. His apex beat was displaced laterally and he had a few bibasal crepitations on auscultation. There were no cardiac murmurs. His investigation results revealed the following: Serum sodium 143 mmol/L (137-144), Serum potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 140 μmol/L (60-110), Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL (1.0-2.0). CXR showed cardiomegaly and a calcified aorta. ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen

      Explanation:

      From the given history the patient has NYHA grade III heart failure. He can be safely started on an ACE inhibitor as his serum potassium was towards the lower limit. As there an impairment of renal function, his urea, creatinine and serum electrolytes should be closely monitored after commencing an ACE inhibitor. Adding atenolol will not have any clinical benefit. Increasing the digoxin dose is not needed as the patient is in sinus rhythm. Increasing furosemide will only have symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 59 - A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide. On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
      It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
      Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
      Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
      Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 60 - Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised ESR

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

      PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 61 - Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a woman with suspected Osteomalacia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cod liver oil

      Explanation:

      Serum vitamin D levels are influenced by sun exposure and diet. Cod liver oil is an important dietary vitamin D source in high-latitude countries like Norway where there is no sun-induced vitamin D production during the winter. 14 Norwegian Health Authorities have recommended 5 ml of cod liver oil daily (400 IU of vitamin D) for more than 60 years to prevent diseases like rickets, formerly more prevalent in areas with little access to vitamin D-rich fatty fish.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 62 - In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy? ...

    Incorrect

    • In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring and hardening of the glomeruli known as diabetic glomerulosclerosis occurring in long-standing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 63 - A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism is enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E.coli. It usually causes haemolytic uremic syndrome.
      Crohn’s disease rarely manifests in an acute manner.
      Polio and giardiasis usually manifest with non-bloody diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 64 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 65 - A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal heart sound which was detected during a medical check up. On examination he looked well. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. His jugular venous pressure was not elevated and he didn't have ankle oedema. He had an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal edge, which was more clear in expiration when the patient leant forward. His lungs were clear. His FBC, Urea and electrolytes, LFTs and lipid profile were normal. His ECG showed sinus rhythm. His chest X-ray was normal. Echocardiography showed mild to moderate aortic regurgitation with normal left ventricular size and normal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start him on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Although this patient’s left ventricular function is normal at the time of examination, there is chance of deterioration of it due to aortic regurgitation. It is found that ACE inhibitors slow the development of left ventricular dysfunction. So this patient should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 66 - During the examination of an elderly confused and non-coherent gentleman who was brought...

    Incorrect

    • During the examination of an elderly confused and non-coherent gentleman who was brought to casualty by a concerned neighbour, you notice that he has bilaterally small pupils, which do not appear to react to light. Under the circumstances, it is difficult to judge their response to accommodation. Which of the following conditions may not account for the pupillary appearance in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intoxication

      Explanation:

      Acute alcohol intoxication presents with pupillary dilation, thus, this is ruled out in this patient. All the other listed causes present with small pupils bilaterally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 67 - A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed to him collapsing. Upon arrival in A&E, he has a heart rate of 76 bpm, blood pressure 220/140, and Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2, M5, V2). Which of the following should be done immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

      Explanation:

      This man is likely suffering from a subarachnoid haemorrhage or intracerebral bleed. The priority is to prevent a secondary brain injury. Important first steps include ensuring a secure airway, normalizing cardiovascular function, and treating seizures. His airway is likely to be protected with a GCS of 9, although he may benefit from a nasal or oral airway, and close attention should be paid to his airway if going for a CT scan. He should receive high flow oxygen and his blood pressure should not be treated acutely, as i is often appropriate to compensate for a rise in intracranial pressure. Nimodipine should be given if a subarachnoid haemorrhage is proven. Attention should also be given to maintaining a normal blood sugar, as hyperglycaemia worsens outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 68 - A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he has been having extreme difficulty in seeing things clearly and now complains of cloudy vision. On fundoscopy, flame-shaped haemorrhages are found in the patient's right eye. Margins of the optic disc were also found to be blurred. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CRV thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped haemorrhages which are specific to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). In CRA thrombosis, fundoscopy would show a cherry-red spot. A patient with retinal detachment would give a characteristic history of seeing flashes of light and floaters. Background retinopathy is associated with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 69 - A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics. His full blood count done (FBC) today shows: Hb: 9.1 g/dL, Plts: 250 x 10^9/L, WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L, Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L. However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score. Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.

      Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.

      LAP score is high in:
      1. Leukemoid reaction
      2. Infections
      3. Myelofibrosis
      4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
      5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
      6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

      LAP score is low in:
      1. CML
      2. Pernicious anaemia
      3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
      4. Infectious mononucleosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 70 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 71 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision. Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.

      Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
      Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
      Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
      Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 72 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She had extensive colitis 10 years ago, which has improved with medical treatment. Last year she had been diagnosed with primary sclerosing cholangitis. Her last colonoscopy was 6 months ago, which detected no active disease, and random biopsies were normal. She is remaining well and asymptomatic. When should colonic screening be performed on this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy should be performed annually

      Explanation:

      Colonoscopy screening should begin 10 years after the first diagnosis in ulcerative colitis, given the increased risk for colon cancer. Given that she has developed primary sclerosing cholangitis, her risk of colon cancer is even higher. Colonoscopy screening should occur at 3 year intervals in the second decade, 2 year intervals in the third decade, and 1 year intervals by the first decade, making A the correct answer choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 74 - An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the most significant long-term risk following this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Human-papilloma virus (HPV) can lead to cervical cancer. There are many different types, but the types associated with cervical cancer most commonly are 16, 18, 31, 33, and 35. The vaccination against HPV protects against the most common types of HPV that are seen in cervical cancer and is recommended for children/young teens. Cervical cancer has a clear association with HPV, making this the best answer over all of the other answer choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 75 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

      In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

      A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

      Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 76 - A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of pins and needles in the lower limbs, and progressive walking difficulties. She states she had diarrhoea 1 week ago. On examination, there is a loss of pinprick sensation noted to the lower limbs from mid-thigh distally and in the upper limbs from MCP joints distally. There is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, noted at 3/5, and knee flexion and extension weakness, noted at 4/5 bilaterally. Power in upper and lower limbs is otherwise normal. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni). Characteristic features include progressive weakness of all four limbs, and it is classically ascending, affecting the lower extremities first. Sensory symptoms tend to be mild.

      Functional neurological syndrome can be discounted due to presence of hard neurological signs. Multiple sclerosis can be excluded because of the presence of lower motor neuron signs and absence of upper motor neuron signs. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is the chronic form of Guillain-Barre syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 77 - A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 78 - Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson’s disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 79 - A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He has no significant past medical history or cardiac risk factors except a total cholesterol of 5.8 mmol/L. He has been already started on aspirin. Which of the following is the most suitable drug combination for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B-blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers have proven prognostic benefits. Nitrates don’t have any proven prognostic benefits. A statin is indicated for a patient with angina and cholesterol level of 5.5 to 8.5 to prevent risk of myocardial infarction. So the preferred combination from the given answers is beta blocker + statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 80 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Incorrect

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36 hours

      Explanation:

      The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Pathophysiology:
      Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).

      Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
      Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
      Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
      Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Management
      First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
      Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 82 - Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation

      Explanation:

      Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 83 - A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.
      It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
      The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.
      The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat.
      Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 84 - Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is three times as common in females

      Explanation:

      In restless leg syndrome (RLS), males and females are thought to be equally affected. RLS is a syndrome of spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia. It is extremely common, affecting between 2-10% of the general population and a family history may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 85 - An 77-year-old female has been admitted in the psychiatric ward for the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old female has been admitted in the psychiatric ward for the past 6 months with a fixed belief that her insides are rotting as she is deceased. Which of the following terms best describe this type of delusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard delusion

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

      Other options:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.
      – Capgras delusion is the belief that friends or family members have been replaced by an identical-looking imposter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 86 - A 55 yr. old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe central chest pain for the past one hour, associated with sweating and vomiting. Her ECG showed ST elevation myocardial infarction, evident in leads V2-V4. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 87 - All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

      Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy.

      – Poor control of thyrotoxicosis is associated with pregnancy loss, pregnancy-induced hypertension, prematurity, low birth weight, intrauterine growth restriction, stillbirth, thyroid storm, and maternal congestive heart failure.

      – Antithyroid drugs are the treatment of choice of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy. The lowest dose of ATD needed to maintain TT4 1.5× the upper limit of the non-pregnant reference range or FT4 at the upper limit of the reference range should be used.
      Two different antithyroid drug (ATD) regimens are in common use for Grave’s disease: i) Titration method and ii) Block-and-replace method.
      In the titration method, the usual starting dose is 15–30 mg/day methimazole (or equivalent doses of other thionamides); further to periodic thyroid status assessment, daily dose is tapered down to the lowest effective dose (avoiding both hyper- and hypothyroidism).
      The block-and-replace method uses persistently high ATD doses in association with L-thyroxine replacement to avoid hypothyroidism; treatment lasts 6 months. This method has advantages and disadvantages over the titration method. Higher doses of ATDs may have a greater immunosuppressive action useful for a permanent remission of hyperthyroidism, but this effect remains to be demonstrated.
      Avoidance of hypothyroidism or ‘escape’ of hyperthyroidism seems easier than with the titration method; treatment is shorter, and the number of visits lower. On the other hand, the much higher number of tablets taken every day may create problems of poor compliance. The block-and-replace method should not be used during pregnancy.

      – Breastfeeding has been shown to be safe in mothers taking ATDs in appropriate doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 88 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden. Following blood results are obtained: Plts: 220 x 10^9/L, PT: 11 secs, APTT: 76 secs, Factor VIIIc activity: Normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 89 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
      There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.

      Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
      Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
      Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.

      Note:
      Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
      Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 90 - What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 91 - A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies

      Explanation:

      CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:

      DVT likely: 2 points or more
      DVT unlikely: 1 point or less

      This system of points is based on the following clinical features:
      1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
      2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
      3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
      4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
      5. Entire leg swollen—1
      6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
      7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
      8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
      9. Previously documented DVT—1
      10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2

      If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
      If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’

      Management

      1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
      2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
      3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
      4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
      5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
      6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.

      As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
      1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
      2. Chest X-ray
      3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
      4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
      5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 92 - A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards her right side. Which of the nerves will be effected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right abducens

      Explanation:

      This patient has complaints of diplopia in the right eye, when looking towards the right. Eyeball movements towards the right side are controlled by right lateral rectus muscle which is supplied by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 93 - A 68-year-old fashion designer presents to his GP complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old fashion designer presents to his GP complaining of pain in his right eye. On examination the sclera is red and the pupil is dilated with a hazy cornea. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      There are many possible causes of a red eye. It is important to be able to recognise the causes which require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma presents with severe pain, decreased visual acuity, patient seeing haloes, semi-dilated pupils, and hazy cornea. Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset pain, blurred vision and photophobia, with small, fixed oval pupils and ciliary flush.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 94 - A 40-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed as having emphysema. Further tests reveal that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed as having emphysema. Further tests reveal that he has alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. What is the main role of alpha-1 antitrypsin in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protease inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1-antitrypsin (AAT) is a member of the serine proteinase inhibitor (serpin) family of proteins with a broad spectrum of biological functions including inhibition of proteases, immune modulatory functions, and the transport of hormones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 95 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

      Common lithium side effects may include:
      – dizziness, drowsiness;
      – tremors in your hands;
      – trouble walking;
      – dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;
      – nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;
      – cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;
      – rash; or.
      – blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 96 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago. Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol. What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive cocci

      Explanation:

      Gram-staining of the blood cultures of this patient will show gram-positive cocci. Gram-negative bacilli used to be the most common pathogen isolated in neutropenic sepsis, but currently, the most common pathogens are gram-positive organisms. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most frequent causative agent, and following this are other staphylococci and streptococci species.

      Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy—usually chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after the treatment and is usually defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach includes starting empirical antibiotic therapy (piperacillin with tazobactam—Tazocin) immediately. Following this initial treatment, the patient is usually assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to see if outpatient treatment may be possible. However, if the patient remains febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed with or without vancomycin. If patient is still not responding after 4-6 days, then an antifungal, such as amphotericin B, is started after carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 97 - A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea and several episodes of haemoptysis. There is no significant past medical history and he did not take any regular medication. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is grossly oedematous and has ascites. Cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable and there are no neurological signs or rashes. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90fl Na+ 145 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 8.2 mmol/L, Bilirubin 16 μmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, Albumin 22 g/l Aspartate transaminase 32 iu/l Alkaline phosphatase 120 iu/l Urinalysis: Protein +++ 24 h urinary protein excretion: 5g Chest radiograph: Enlarged right hilum Echocardiogram: Mild left ventricular impairment, no valve lesion Abdominal ultrasound scan: Normal-sized kidneys, no abnormality seen A renal biopsy was performed. What is it most likely to show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3

      Explanation:

      Renal biopsy in this patient will most likely show thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3 as a result of membranous glomerulonephritis that has caused the nephrotic syndrome in this patient. Membranous glomerulonephritis in this case is most likely associated with an underlying bronchial carcinoma, consistent with the patient’s smoking history and physical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 98 - A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum.   Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative.   What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No change in medication

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
      Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 99 - Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chiari type I malformation

      Explanation:

      Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Chiari Type I malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brain stem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction, which includes DBN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 100 - A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) was diagnosed. He was threated with aspirin 300mg and 2 puffs of glyceral trin (GTN) spray. According to NICE guidelines, which of the following categories of patients should receive clopidogrel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), a beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 101 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 102 - A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for...

    Incorrect

    • A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

      This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 103 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 104 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 105 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation...

    Incorrect

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.

      The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.

      Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.

      The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
      Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 106 - Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.

      Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.

      Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 107 - A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30–56% and 11–28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 108 - A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 109 - A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
      In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 110 - A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. He has developed tense ascites again and a plan is made to site an ascitic drain. His renal function after 2 days is as follows: Na+ 131 mmol/L, K+ 3.8 mmol/L, Urea 12.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 205 µmol/L, Which of the following pathophysiological changes is most likely to be responsible for the declining renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splanchnic vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal syndrome is renal vasoconstriction that cannot overcome the effects of splanchnic vasodilation. Vasoactive mediators cause this splanchnic vasodilation, reducing SVR, which is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, activating the RAAS system, leading to renal vasoconstriction. However, the overall splanchnic vasodilation effect is greater than this renal vasoconstriction effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 111 - A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin T

      Explanation:

      The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 112 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.

      The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 113 - A 60 yr. old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe central chest pain associated with excessive sweating and nausea for the past 45 minutes. On examination he was found to have xanthelasma. His blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 104 bpm. His ECG showed ST elevation more than 2mm in leads II, III and aVF. His troponin T was 120 ng/ml. His FBC and renal functions were normal. He was given aspirin, clopidogrel, morphine and IV 5mg of atenolol. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate referral to cardiologist for primary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is acute inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction so the most appropriate management is primary angioplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 114 - An 80 year old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium....

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is accompanied by her daughter who noticed the acute change. The patient has had a nagging cough with purulent sputum and haemoptysis for the last few days. Previous history includes a visit to her GP two weeks back because of influenza. On examination, the patient appears markedly agitated with a respiratory rate of 35/min. Blood gases reveal that she is hypoxic. White blood cell count is 20 x 109/l, and creatinine is 250mmol/l. Chest X-ray is notable for patchy areas of consolidation, necrosis and empyema formation. Which of the following lead to the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Though a common community pathogen, Staphylococcus Aureas is found twice as frequently in pneumonias in hospitalized patients. It often attacks the elderly and patients with CF and arises as a co-infection with influenza viral pneumonia. The clinical course is characterized by high fevers, chills, a cough with purulent bloody sputum, and rapidly progressing dyspnoea. The gross pathology commonly reveals an acute bronchopneumonia pattern that may evolve into a necrotizing cavity with congested lungs and airways that contain a bloody fluid and thick mucoid secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 115 - A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome. She is not in a steady relationship at present. There is haematuria and proteinuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with flank pain and fever with haematuria and proteinuria associated with a social history of not being in a steady relationship. This patient is a young presumably sexually active female, so the diagnosis is most likely pyelonephritis which has an increased incidence in young sexually active women or men of >50 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 116 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 117 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
      In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 118 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 119 - A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 120 - A 42 yr. old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for the past 2 hours. She has a family history of premature coronary artery disease. Her husband passed away recently due to prostate cancer. On examination her blood pressure was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 80 bpm. Her ECG showed ST segment elevation and her troponin was slightly elevated. Emergency angiogram revealed slight wall irregularities with no luminal obstruction. Cardiovascular MR showed an apical ballooning of the myocardium resembling an octopus pot. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the ST segment elevation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Causes for ST segment elevation other than myocardial infarction
      Natural variants
      -Early repolarization
      -Left ventricular hypertrophy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Left bundle branch block
      Artefacts
      -Leads mispositioning
      -Electrical cardioversion
      Cardiovascular diseases
      -Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
      -Aortic dissection
      -Prinzmetal’s angina
      -Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
      -Brugada Syndrome and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia
      Pulmonary diseases
      -Pulmonary thromboembolism
      -Pneumothorax
      -Atelectasis and pulmonary metastases
      Gastrointestinal diseases
      -Acute pancreatitis
      -Acute cholecystitis
      Other conditions
      -Hyperkalaemia
      -Drug induced ST segment elevation (e.g. – clozapine)
      -Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular disease

      Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction can be excluded with a negative angiogram and a slightly elevated troponin. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be excluded with cardiovascular MR findings. Left ventricular aneurysm usually occurs following a myocardial infarction, but there is no positive history for that. The characteristic findings on cardiovascular MR confirms the diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 121 - A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 3 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. On exploring this further, she is concerned because of the high number of migrating birds that she can see in her garden. She reports that the presence of her husband's socks on the washing line in the garden alerted her to this. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Based on the given clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is acute paranoid schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 122 - A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin. On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation. Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus Arterial blood gas on air: pH 7.34 pCO2 5.4 kPa pO2 9.0 kPa Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 123 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 124 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 125 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses. Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 126 - A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common.
      Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 127 - A 27 year old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The woman seems to have a chancroid, which may or may not drain to the lymph nodes of the groin. These nodes are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 128 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture. What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics.

      It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.

      Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.

      Other side effects include:
      Hypotension, tachycardia
      Fever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)
      Appetite increase
      Constipation
      Heartburn
      Weight gain
      Extrapyramidal symptoms
      Agranulocytosis
      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 129 - A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of colorectal cancer. He was diagnosed one month ago after participating in a screening test—faecal occult blood test. Following the positive test result, colonoscopy was performed demonstrating a malignant lesion in the descending colon. CT staging showed lymph node involvement but no distant metastases. The patient has undergone a left hemicolectomy and is due to start adjuvant chemotherapy with a combination of fluorouracil (5-FU) and oxaliplatin. During his work-up, his consultant had explained that he would need to be monitored for disease recurrence. Which of the following is important in monitoring the disease activity in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a known tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not used diagnostically, but in patients with a known diagnosis of colorectal cancer associated with raised CEA levels, it can be used to monitor disease activity and help with the early identification of disease recurrence.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 130 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 131 - Choose the correct statement regarding p53 gene: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding p53 gene:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome predisposes to the development of sarcomas

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) is a cancer predisposition syndrome associated with the development of the following classic tumours: soft tissue sarcoma, osteosarcoma, pre-menopausal breast cancer, brain tumours, adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC), and leukaemia. LFS is diagnosed in individuals meeting established clinical criteria or in those who have a germline pathogenic variant in TP53 regardless of family cancer history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 132 - A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute severe chest pain and acute myocardial infarction was diagnosed. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 133 - A 73 year old woman attends COPD clinic for review. Her blood gases...

    Incorrect

    • A 73 year old woman attends COPD clinic for review. Her blood gases were checked on her last visit two months back. The test was repeated again today. The paO2 on both occasions was 6.8 kPa. There is no CO2 retention on 28% O2. She stopped smoking around 6 months ago and is maintained on combination inhaled steroids and long acting b2-agonist therapy. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggest she uses an oxygen concentrator for at least 19 h per day

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) ≥ 15 h/day improves survival in hypoxemic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It significantly helps in reducing pulmonary hypertension associated with COPD and treating underlying pathology of future heart failure. There is little to no benefit of oxygen therapy for less than 15 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 134 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.

      Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
      Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
      Respiratory deficiency
      Acute alcohol dependence
      Head injury
      Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
      Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
      Severe hepatic impairment
      The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.

      To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.

      It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
      It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 135 - Which is the most severe form among the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most severe form among the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
      class I: normal kidney
      class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
      class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
      class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

      Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 136 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 137 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 138 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases. Her admission biochemistry results are as follows: Sodium 153 mmol/l, Potassium 4.0 mmol/L, Urea 5.0 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 micromol/L, Glucose 5mmol/l. Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254mOsm/kg. Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 139 - A 25-year-old woman with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) asks how likely it is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) asks how likely it is that any future children will have the disease. What is the most accurate answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) is an autosomal dominant condition; therefore, there is a 50% chance that the children of this patient will be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 140 - A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had a post-bronchodilator spirometry done. FEV1/FVC 0. 63 FEV1% predicted 63% What is the best interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a complex and progressive chronic lung disease. Typically, COPD includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. COPD is characterized by the restriction of airflow into and out of the lungs. The obstruction of airflow makes breathing difficult. The causes of COPD include smoking, long-term exposure to air pollutants and a rare genetic disorder.

      The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) developed the GOLD Staging System. In the GOLD System, the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) measurement from a pulmonary function test is used to place COPD into stages. Often, doctors also consider your COPD symptoms.

      COPD has four stages. The stages of COPD range from mild to very severe. COPD affects everyone differently. Because COPD is a progressive lung disease, it will worsen over time.
      The Stages of COPD:
      Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
      Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
      Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
      Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.

      This patient has a FEV1 percent of 63 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 141 - A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Explanation:

      Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia.
      The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.
      The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg.

      The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.
      Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 142 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 143 - An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 144 - A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and acute ST elevation myocardial infarction was diagnosed. He was treated with streptokinase. 2 days later he was sweating excessively and he was found to be hypotensive. Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotensive effect of streptokinase

      Explanation:

      Hypotensive effect of streptokinase occurs during the streptokinase infusion which is usually transient. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of papillary muscles, ventricular septal defects and reinfarctions (left or right) are known to cause hypotension after 24 hrs. Pulmonary embolism is less likely but cannot be excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 145 - A 29-year-old accountant presents to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old accountant presents to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain. He has not been able to wear his contact lenses for the past 24 hours due to the pain. He describes the pain as severe and wonders whether he has 'got something stuck in his eye'. On examination, there is diffuse hyperaemia of the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy and pupillary reaction is normal. Visual acuity is reduced on the left side and a degree of photophobia is noted. A hypopyon is also seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      Hypopyon can be seen in anterior uveitis, however the combination of a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use make a diagnosis of keratitis more likely. Keratitis describes inflammation of the cornea, and features include red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, and foreign body/gritty sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 146 - Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing

      Explanation:

      The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:

      1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis

      2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis

      3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis

      4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 147 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 148 - A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for 4 days. Fundoscopy of both eyes revealed cotton wool spots in both the retinas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV infection

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy findings of cotton wool spots and retinal tears, accompanied by a history of blurred vision, are characteristic of retinitis. Cytomegalovirus is known to cause retinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 149 - A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 150 - A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. He thinks there has been no improvement in his condition and is interested in using pharmacological therapy. Which of the following is most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-dose fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by a cycle of bingeing and compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting designed to undo or compensate for the effects of binge eating.

      According to the DSM-5, the official diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are:
      Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by both of the following:
      Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g. within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
      A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
      Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
      The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months.
      Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
      The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

      Antidepressants as a group – particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – are the mainstay of pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa. These may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments
      Fluoxetine (Prozac): Initial dose 20 mg/d with advance over 1–2 weeks to 60 mg/d in the morning as tolerated. Some patients may need to begin at a lower dose if side effects are intolerable. A maximum dose of 80 mg/d may be used in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 151 - A 60 yr. old female presented after an acute overdose of amiodarone. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old female presented after an acute overdose of amiodarone. Her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 35 bpm. She was given 500mcg of atropine but there was no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Permanent pacing is not indicated as the bradycardia is reversible. Temporary pacing is the definite treatment. Isoprenaline can be used until temporary pacing is available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 152 - A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful, red left eye. Visual acuity is normal. Fundoscopy is also unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Scleritis, or inflammation of the sclera, is usually painful whereas episcleritis is not painful.

      Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is usually bilateral and associated more with dryness, burning and itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 153 - You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to...

    Incorrect

    • You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 154 - A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea.   Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon.   Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 155 - A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED complaining of pain in the spine and the onset of severe lower-leg weakness accompanied by a loss of sensation. On examination, he is found to have percussion tenderness of his spine, loss of sensation up to the umbilicus and a distended bladder. He has markedly reduced power of the lower legs with hyperreflexia. Which of the following should not be part of your management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal X-rays

      Explanation:

      Acute cord compression is a medical emergency. Typically, signs of segmental damage at the level of compression are usually combined with corticospinal tract dysfunction (e.g., hyperreflexia, Babinski’s sign and weakness) and sensory deficits below the level of compression. Symptoms include spinal pain that precedes the development of weak legs and sensory loss. There may be loss of bladder (and anal) sphincter control, manifesting as hesitancy, frequency and, finally, painless retention.
      Spinal X-rays are rarely diagnostic. MRI is usually the investigation of choice and should not be delayed, but if not available consider doing a CT scan and myelography to confirm cord compression and fully define the level and extent of the lesion. If malignancy is the cause, it is important to give dexamethasone (oral or intravenous) while considering therapy more specific to the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 156 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 157 - A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
      People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.

      Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
      Fear of germs or contamination
      Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
      Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
      Having things symmetrical or in a perfect order

      Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
      -Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
      -Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
      -Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
      -Compulsive counting

      Research also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 158 - A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal bleeding and is generally well apart from occasional diarrhoea. She has previously attended a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour and is now brought in by her mother having consumed a number of pills. Her mother has had recurrent venous thromboses, but there is no family history of a bleeding disorder. Her full blood count (FBC) is normal, but her coagulation profile shows: Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 60 secs (28–38 secs), Prothrombin time (PT): no clot after 120 secs (10–14 secs), Fibrinogen: 3.6 g/L (2–4 g/L). What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin overdose

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent procoagulants II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant protein C and S. It is highly protein-bound and can be displaced by a wide variety of drugs. It has a half-life of 36–48 hours.

      Bleeding is the major side effect. Easy bruising, as seen in this case, is commonly seen in patients of warfarin overdose. Grossly prolonged PT and lesser increase in APTT may be seen in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 159 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed in the BNF as possible side-effects. They are however not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:
      Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      Venous thromboembolism.
      Endometrial cancer
      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

      Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 160 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.

      Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.

      The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.

      Other options:
      The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
      There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
      Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
      There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 161 - A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40% of normal

      Explanation:

      Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.

      Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
      The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
      •PiMM: 100% (normal)
      •PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
      •PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
      •PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 162 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction. His coagulation profile shows: Plts: 173 x 10^9/L, PT: 12.9 secs, APTT: 84 secs. Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 163 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 164 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date and he had a booster tetanus shot 3 years ago. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      The most suitable management step for tetanus prevention in this scenario would be to ensure that the individual receives a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine if they have not had a booster dose within the last five years. Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccines are routinely given during childhood immunization schedules, but booster doses are recommended every 10 years thereafter to maintain immunity. Since the individual’s immunization history is up to date, if they have received their primary series of tetanus vaccinations and a booster dose within the last five years, no further action would be needed regarding tetanus prevention.

      However, if the individual’s immunization status is uncertain or if it has been more than five years since their last tetanus booster, they should receive a tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine promptly. Additionally, if the wound is contaminated or considered high risk for tetanus infection, tetanus immune globulin (TIG) may also be administered for immediate protection against tetanus toxins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 165 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 166 - Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure of the tricuspid valve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 167 - A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.   What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 168 - A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part of a neurological investigation for possible multiple sclerosis. During the consent process, she expresses concern about a post-LP headache. What is the mechanism of post-LP headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leaking cerebrospinal fluid from the dura

      Explanation:

      Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the dura is the most likely explanation for post-lumbar puncture headaches. It is thought that ongoing leak of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the puncture site causes ongoing CSF loss, leading to low pressure. A post-LP headache is typically frontal or occipital and occurs within three days. It is normally associated with worsening on standing and improvement when lying down. Treatment in severe cases includes an epidural blood patch, but most resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 169 - A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 170 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 171 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Incorrect

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 172 - Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most likely to benefit a patient with schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 173 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Screening has been shown to be effective. Bevacizumab is not used for advanced cases. The incidence is higher in men. Alcohol is not the most common underlying cause worldwide; this is from cirrhosis from diseases like hepatitis B and C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 174 - A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 175 - An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision and unsteadiness whilst walking. He has a past medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes. On examination, you notice a right partial ptosis and miosis. The patient also has notable right facial loss of pain and temperature sensation with left sided truncal sensory loss contralateral to the face. In the clinic, apraclonidine eye drops are added to the affected eye, which causes a dilatation, whilst in the opposite eye, a pupil constriction occurs. After the eye drops have been eliminated from the body, 1% hydroxyamphetamine eye drops are then instilled. One hour after instillation, both pupils dilate. Which order of neurons is most likely affected in the sympathetic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First order

      Explanation:

      Apraclonidine eye drops are initially used to confirm a Horner’s pupil. Apraclonidine stimulates both alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. When added to the affected eye, it causes pupil dilation by >2mm because of the relative super sensitivity of this pupil to alpha-1 receptor activity. In a normal pupil, however, it causes constriction due to the more potent activity at the alpha-2 receptor which triggers re-uptake of noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft.

      Hydroxy amphetamine is then used to distinguish between first/second or third order neurones. In other words, it will distinguish either a lesion in the brainstem, cervical cord, chest or neck and one affecting above the superior cervical ganglion at the carotid bifurcation. In a normal pupil or a first/second order Horner’s, the pupil will dilate secondary to increased levels of noradrenaline released from the post-synaptic neurones. In a third order neurone, this will not occur. There is no fourth or fifth order neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 176 - A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also has evidence of sensory loss on the right hand side. There is evidence of Horner’s syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left hand side. Which of the following structures are involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain stem

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome, where the symptoms are due to an ischemia in the brainstem. The classical symptoms include contralateral sensory deficits of the trunk region paired with ipsilateral facial sensory deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 177 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 178 - Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
      The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 179 - A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt. He was found at home with an empty bottle of paracetamol by his side. Still conscious, a history was obtained from him to assess his risk of further attempts. Which of the following is considered to be the strongest risk factor for successful suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addiction to opiates

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, an addiction to opiates is considered the strongest risk factor for committing suicide.

      Other options:
      Being a female – Being male is one of the most significant risk factors for suicide.
      Being married – Having family support is an important protective factor for suicide.
      Having five children – Having children at home is thought to be a protective factor.
      Having never seen a general practitioner – Having a chronic mental or physical condition is however a risk factor for suicide.

      Risk factors of suicide:
      There are several factors shown to be associated with an increased risk of suicide:
      Male sex
      History of deliberate self-harm
      Alcohol or drug misuse
      History of mental illness (depression, schizophrenia)
      History of chronic disease
      Advancing age
      Unemployment or social isolation/living alone
      Being unmarried, divorced or widowed
      Previous attempt to commit suicide.

      Signs pointing towards suicidal intension:
      Efforts to avoid discovery
      Planning
      Leaving a written note
      Final acts such as sorting out finances
      Violent method

      Protective factors against suicide:
      Family support
      Having children at home
      Religious belief

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 180 - A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started as macules and then became vesicles. After 3 days she died. During her post-mortem, positive findings suggestive of pneumonitis were found. Which one of the following is the most common cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 181 - Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      Lysosomal hydrolases are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and specifically transported through the Golgi apparatus to the trans-Golgi network, from which transport vesicles bud to deliver them to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. The explanation of how the lysosomal enzymes are accurately recognized and selected over many other proteins in the trans-Golgi network relies on them being tagged with a unique marker: the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) group, which is added exclusively to the N-linked oligosaccharides of lysosomal soluble hydrolases, as they pass through the cis-Golgi network. Generation of the M6P recognition marker depends on a reaction involving two different enzymes: UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphotransferase and α-N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphodiester α-N-acetylglucosaminidase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 182 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C

      Explanation:

      In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.

      Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 183 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.

      Contraindications
      – Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
      – Hypotension
      – Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)

      Side-effects:
      Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
      Nasal congestion
      Flushing
      Gastrointestinal side-effects
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 184 - A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 185 - A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. History reveals he suffers from night sweats and upon auscultation you notice reduced breath sounds over the apex of his right lung and significant nail clubbing. You refer him to a pneumologist who administers the following antibiotics: rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide and isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of the first drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin specifically inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for DNA transcription, by forming a stable drug-enzyme complex with a binding constant of 10(-9) M at 37 C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 186 - A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department. Her mother claims that she has been 'staring' for the past few hours but has now developed abnormal head movements and has gone 'cross-eyed'. On examination, the patient's neck is extended and positioned to the right. Her eyes are deviated upwards and are slightly converged. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is an oculogyric crisis, that is most appropriately managed with procyclidine or benztropine (antimuscarinic).

      An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions.

      Features include:
      Restlessness, agitation
      Involuntary upward deviation of the eyes

      Causes:
      Phenothiazines
      Haloperidol
      Metoclopramide
      Postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease

      Management:
      Intravenous antimuscarinic agents like benztropine or procyclidine, alternatively diphenhydramine or ethopropazine maybe used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 187 - A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the hospital for right hemicolectomy. She had a history of osteoarthritis for which she was taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs), intermittently. Two years ago, she had a fibroma removed from her right breast as well. The patient was a non-smoker and drank approximately 8 units of alcohol per week. Investigations carried out pre-operatively showed: Hb: 10.8 g/dL, MCV: 75 fL , WCC: 8.4 x10^9/L, Plts: 402 x10^9/L. The surgery remained uncomplicated, and she was given two units of packed red blood cells postoperatively. Three days later, she has now become jaundiced and complains of fatigue. Her blood count now shows: Hb: 7.2 g/dL, MCV: 110 fL, WCC: 9.5 x10^9/L, Plts: 395 x10^9/L. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct Coombs test

      Explanation:

      The direct Coombs test will specifically confirm immune-mediated haemolysis occurring post-transfusion in the aforementioned case.

      There are two types of Coombs test used in immunohematology and immunology:

      1. Direct Coombs test—It confirms autoimmune haemolytic anaemia by detecting antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells.

      2. Indirect Coombs test—It is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. It detects antibodies floating freely in the blood, against foreign red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 188 - In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
      Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 189 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone. On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects. From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg. Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A post-operative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 190 - A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
      The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
      Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
      Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
      Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of cases

      Löfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.

      Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
      – Erythema nodosum
      – A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
      – Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
      – Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
      – Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)

      Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
      Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
      Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
      Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
      Stage III: Infiltrates alone
      Stage IV: Fibrosis

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.

      Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
      Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
      In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
      Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
      Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.

      This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 191 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.

      Symptoms of IAD may include:
      -Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
      -Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
      -High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
      -Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
      -Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
      -Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 192 - A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 193 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 194 - A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last 3 years. He complained of being unable to see well at night and having an impaired sense of smell. On examination he had a shortened fourth toe bilaterally with pes cavus. Neurological examination revealed a loss of pinprick sensation to bilateral knees, and weakness of both legs that was more prominent distally. Which of the following would be the best blood test to order to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phytanic acid

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is Refsum’s disease. This is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes a sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy. It is caused by defective alpha oxidation of phytanic acid leading to its accumulation in tissues. Cardiac conduction abnormalities and cardiomyopathies may also occur.
      Epiphyseal dysplasia causes a characteristic shortening of the fourth toe. Serum phytanic acid levels are elevated. Treatment is by dietary restriction of foods containing phytanic acid (dairy products, fish, beef and lamb).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 195 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 196 - Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 197 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 198 - A 45-year-old man who had a liver transplant just over 3 months ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man who had a liver transplant just over 3 months ago, now has primary sclerosing cholangitis. He complains of fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which has come on over the last week. He has a platelet count of 60 x 109/L and alanine transaminase (ALT) of 300 U/L with a normal bilirubin. He is taking tacrolimus and prednisolone for immunosuppression, and tells you that he recently stopped taking valganciclovir. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donor-acquired cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      The fact that he has recently stopped taking his valganciclovir, anti-viral, is key to the answer to this question. This makes the answer quite plainly donor-acquired CMV infection over all of the other answer choices. He needs to stay on prophylaxis against this, particularly in the first 3 months after transplant. Symptoms and presentations of CMV infection can include fever, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, hematologic abnormalities, retinitis, and esophagitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 199 - A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan

      Explanation:

      Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 200 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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