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Question 1
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother because she is shorter than most of her classmates. She gets good grades and does well in school. She is below the fifth percentile for height for her age. On examination, she is short and has a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.
Which one of the following is karyotyping most likely to reveal?Your Answer: 45,XO
Explanation:Understanding Different Karyotypes and Associated Conditions
Karyotypes are an important tool in diagnosing genetic disorders. Here are some common karyotypes and the associated conditions:
Turner Syndrome (45,XO): This disorder affects females and is caused by the absence of one or part of an X chromosome. Symptoms include short stature, heart defects, and premature ovarian failure.
Klinefelter’s Syndrome (47,XXY): This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms include delayed puberty, small testes, and learning disabilities.
Trisomy 21 (47,XX+21): This karyotype is associated with Down syndrome, which causes intellectual disability and physical characteristics such as slanted palpebral fissure and a wide space between the big and second toe.
47,XYY: This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra Y chromosome. Symptoms include tall stature and an increased risk of learning difficulties and behavioral problems.
Normal Karyotype: A normal karyotype for a woman is 46,XX. If a different karyotype is present, it may indicate a genetic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer: Referral for elective outpatient surgical repair
Correct Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved
Explanation:According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.
Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment
Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.
Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.
In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?
Your Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years
Explanation:Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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An infant is found to be cyanotic shortly after birth. A chest X-ray reveals a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, and a holosystolic murmur is heard at the left lower sternal border.
What other finding is probable in this infant?Your Answer: Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Explanation:Cyanotic Neonate with Boot-Shaped Heart: Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart defect that can present as a cyanotic neonate with a boot-shaped heart and a holosystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border. This condition is characterized by four morphologic features: right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction secondary to pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, and overriding aorta. These features develop due to anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum during fetal development.
A fixed, widely split S2 would indicate an atrial septal defect (ASD), which is a form of acyanotic heart disease and would not explain the radiograph findings in this scenario. A decrescendo, diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal border would suggest aortic regurgitation, which is not a cause of cyanotic heart disease in neonates. A harsh crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border would suggest aortic stenosis, which is also not a cause of cyanotic heart disease in neonates.
Therefore, a cyanotic neonate with a boot-shaped heart and a holosystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border is likely to have TOF. These patients can be born cyanotic, or cyanosis can develop after birth as a left-to-right shunt undergoes Eisenmenger syndrome and becomes a right-to-left shunt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A father and his 6-year-old daughter visit your Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS) clinic, as she has recently been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The father has already attended an educational program on ADHD and is feeling overwhelmed as his daughter's behavior is difficult to manage at home. He has heard that medication may be helpful. Based on previous interventions, what would be the next most suitable treatment for her ADHD?
Your Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:Methylphenidate is the recommended initial treatment for ADHD.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently being examined on the ward. The baby appears to be in good health on initial inspection and the mother has not reported any concerns thus far. During the examination, the doctor observes a large volume, collapsing pulse, a heaving apex beat, and a left subclavicular thrill. On auscultation of heart sounds, the doctor detects a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur. An urgent echocardiogram is ordered by the doctor, which confirms their suspected diagnosis. No other abnormalities or defects are detected on the echo.
What would be the most appropriate initial management, given the findings and likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The probable diagnosis based on the examination findings is pulmonary ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is characterized by a ‘machinery-like’ murmur. The recommended treatment for this condition is the administration of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibits prostaglandin production and promotes duct closure. The use of prostaglandin E1 is not appropriate in this case, as it would keep the duct open. Referral for routine or urgent surgery is also not necessary, as no other congenital heart defects were found on the echocardiogram. Monitoring and repeating echocardiograms alone are not sufficient and medical intervention is required for closure of the duct.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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Liam, a 3-year-old boy and his father visit a paediatric neurology clinic. Liam's father is worried about epilepsy, but the consultant explains that Liam has been experiencing reflex anoxic seizures. What characteristics could distinguish between epilepsy and Liam's condition?
Your Answer: Quick recovery following seizure
Explanation:Both epilepsy and reflex anoxic seizures can cause collapse, jerking, stiffness, and cyanosis. However, reflex anoxic seizures have a faster recovery time compared to epileptic seizures, which usually have a longer recovery period.
Reflex Anoxic Seizures: A Brief Overview
Reflex anoxic seizures are a type of syncope or fainting episode that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. This condition is believed to be caused by a temporary pause in the heart’s electrical activity due to overstimulation of the vagus nerve in children with sensitive reflexes. Reflex anoxic seizures are most commonly seen in young children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years.
During a reflex anoxic seizure, the child may suddenly become very pale and fall to the ground. Secondary anoxic seizures may also occur, which are brief episodes of muscle twitching or jerking. However, the child typically recovers quickly and without any long-term effects.
There is no specific treatment for reflex anoxic seizures, but it is important to identify and avoid triggers that may cause these episodes. The prognosis for children with reflex anoxic seizures is excellent, and most children outgrow this condition as they get older. By understanding the symptoms and triggers of reflex anoxic seizures, parents and caregivers can help manage this condition and ensure the safety and well-being of their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Duodenal atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis
Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:
1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.
2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.
3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.
5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.
A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Common Bleeding Disorders in Children
Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.
Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.
Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A toddler appears normal during mealtime and is given her food to eat. While eating, she develops respiratory distress with choking and spits out much of the food through her nose and mouth. The caregiver stops the meal and seeks medical evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:There are several congenital conditions that can affect the digestive system in newborns. Oesophageal atresia is a rare condition where the oesophageal tube is interrupted, leading to a blind-ended pouch. This can cause aspiration of milk in the lungs and respiratory distress. Duodenal atresia is another congenital condition that can cause obstruction in the duodenum. It is usually detected before birth and is associated with polyhydramnios. Annular pancreas is a rare disorder where a ring of pancreas surrounds the second part of the duodenum, leading to duodenal obstruction. Infantile pyloric stenosis is a result of a hypertrophied and hyperplastic pyloric muscle, causing gastric outlet obstruction. Midgut malrotation is a disrupted development of the bowel during embryonic development, which can present with an acute volvulus in the first year of life. These conditions require prompt medical attention and may require surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.
Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children
Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.
The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.
To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.
Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child is brought to the GP practice for an urgent appointment by their parent. They have a 7 day history of fever and dry cough but in the last 24hrs their parent has become increasingly concerned about their breathing. They also report the child is refusing food and has had very few wet nappies.
The child's observations are oxygen saturation 93% on air, respiratory rate 58 breaths/min, heart rate 160 bpm, blood pressure 85/45 mmHg and temperature 38.1ºC.
On examination, the child's breathing appears rapid with marked intercostal recession and use of accessory muscles. They are also making a grunting noise.
Which of these findings would indicate immediate referral to hospital by ambulance?Your Answer: Oxygen saturation 93% on air
Correct Answer: Grunting
Explanation:Immediate admission would be necessary for a heart rate of 200bpm. A heart rate of 160 bpm would be worrisome and hospital evaluation should be contemplated, but the urgency would vary based on the patient’s clinical state.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?Your Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting
Explanation:Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.
Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.
The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.
Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.
In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?
Your Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well
Explanation:Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?
Your Answer: Obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned, as he has had an unusually high-pitched cry and has been drawing his legs up and vomiting. His last nappy revealed some bloody, slimy stools. She has recently started to wean him.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Pediatric Gastrointestinal Conditions: Symptoms and Differentiation
Intussusception: A pediatric emergency condition where a bowel segment invaginates into a neighboring part of the bowel, causing obstruction. Symptoms include vomiting, abdominal pain, passing blood and mucous per rectum, lethargy, and a palpable abdominal mass. Diagnosis is via ultrasonography, and treatment can be non-operative or operative depending on the severity.
Food Intolerance: Occurs following ingestion of an allergen and presents with diarrhea, vomiting, wheezing, pruritus, and rash. Typically seen in children at the age of weaning.
Colic: Excessive, high-pitched crying in infants, typically in the evenings. Can relate to a variety of causes, including gastro-oesophageal reflux, overfeeding, incomplete burping following feeds, and food allergy.
Pyloric Stenosis: Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle leading to gastric outlet obstruction. Presents in the first weeks of life with projectile non-bilious vomiting, a palpable mass in the abdomen, and visible peristalsis.
Cystic Fibrosis: An inherited condition associated with mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, affecting the transmembrane transport of chloride ions and leading to thick secretions in the lungs and bowel. Symptoms include meconium ileus, constipation, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, diarrhea, steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and rectal prolapse. Identified by heel-prick screening at birth or around the age of 6-8 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old patient is referred to the Paediatric Unit after having presented to her General Practitioner (GP) twice over the course of the week with fever and a red tongue and throat. A course of penicillin V has so far been ineffective. She is fully immunised and has not been in contact with any other children with notifiable infectious diseases. Her parents report that she has not been well for around 7 days with a high fever, which they have been unable to bring down with paracetamol and ibuprofen. She has had a cough with coryzal symptoms and has now developed conjunctivitis.
On examination, she looks unwell. Temperature is 38 °C, heart rate 124 bpm and respiratory rate 28. Capillary refill time is 2 s centrally. She has bilateral conjunctivitis. She has a red oropharynx and a red tongue. There is cervical lymphadenopathy and a widespread maculopapular rash. Her hands and feet are red and there is some peeling of the skin around the toes.
Which of the following diagnoses should be made?Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The child in question is suffering from Kawasaki disease, a febrile vasculitis that affects small to medium-sized arteries and primarily affects children under the age of 5, with males being more commonly affected. Symptoms include sudden-onset fever lasting at least 5 days, nonexudative conjunctivitis, polymorphous rash, lymphadenopathy, mucositis, and cardiovascular manifestations such as coronary artery aneurysms. Diagnosis is based on the presence of fever lasting for >5 days and at least four or five of the following: bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and oral mucosal cavities, lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and changes in the extremities. Treatment involves inpatient care, intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), aspirin, and monitoring of cardiovascular function. If left untreated, Kawasaki disease can lead to arterial aneurysms and congestive heart disease. Other potential causes of the child’s symptoms, such as Coxsackie infection, measles, viral upper respiratory tract infection with exanthema, and scarlet fever, have been ruled out based on the child’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.
It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.
Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a fever and a rash.
What symptom might indicate the need for the GP to administer IM benzylpenicillin during the appointment?Your Answer: Maculopapular rash and white oral lesions
Correct Answer: Coalescent purpura over the arms
Explanation:Common Paediatric Presentations and their Management
Fever with rash is a common presentation in paediatric patients, with viral infections being the most common cause. However, it is important to rule out meningococcal septicaemia, which can present with purpuric lesions and requires immediate management with IM or IV benzylpenicillin and hospital transfer. The causative agent is Neisseria meningitidis, and the features can be divided into meningitis and septic. Meningitic features include vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia, Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, focal neurology, and opisthotonus. Septic features include systemic illness, pyrexia, anorexia, and reduced tone.
Bilateral pustular eruptions on the fauces indicate bacterial tonsillitis, which is treated with amoxicillin. Measles can present with a maculopapular rash and white oral lesions known as Koplik spots. Varicella zoster virus infection causing chickenpox can present with pruritic vesicular eruptions over the trunk, which is treated symptomatically in immunocompetent children. A strawberry tongue is a sign of oral mucositis and can be found in scarlet fever or Kawasaki disease.
In summary, fever with rash in paediatric patients can have a wide differential diagnosis, and it is important to consider serious conditions such as meningococcal septicaemia. Proper management and treatment depend on identifying the underlying cause of the presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 9-year-old patient comes in with a history of increasing polyuria and polydipsia over the past eight months, along with diffuse bone pain. During the examination, the patient displays exophthalmos, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and indications of mastoiditis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation:Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis: A Rare Disorder with Unknown Cause
Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a rare disorder that is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of histiocytes, resulting in the development of granulomatous lesions in various organs. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it can range in severity. One of the symptoms of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is bone pain, which can be accompanied by features of skull involvement. In some cases, patients with this disorder may also have diabetes insipidus.
Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a complex condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important for patients with symptoms of this disorder to seek medical attention as soon as possible. Treatment options may include chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery, depending on the severity of the condition and the organs affected. With proper treatment, many patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis are able to manage their symptoms and lead normal, healthy lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms
When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.
Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.
Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.
In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his parents due to their worry about his occasional episodes of turning blue and rapid breathing, especially when he is upset or in pain. These episodes have caused him to faint twice. The parents also mention that he has a congenital heart defect. What is the likely diagnosis based on this history?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl has recently started primary school in the UK. Her father has been informed that she can undergo school entry health screening, which will involve a hearing test. She had undergone the full newborn screening program and is up to date on her vaccinations. Her father has no health concerns and agrees to her participation in the school entry health screening program.
What technique will be employed to test the child's hearing as part of the screening program?Your Answer: Pure tone audiometry
Explanation:The appropriate test for school entry hearing screening in most areas of the UK is pure tone audiometry. This test is suitable for individuals over the age of 3 and involves playing sounds at varying frequencies and volumes, with the patient indicating when they can no longer hear the sound. This test helps to identify the presence of hearing loss, the affected frequencies, and the severity of the condition.
The auditory brainstem response test, distraction test, and otoacoustic emission test are not suitable for school entry hearing screening. The auditory brainstem response test is typically performed on newborns and infants with abnormal otoacoustic emission test results. The distraction test is used for children aged 6-9 months to assess their ability to hear and locate sounds. The otoacoustic emission test is part of the newborn hearing screening program and is used to determine the health of the cochlea.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?
Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
Explanation:Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.
In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.
It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.
Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes
Explanation:Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness. During the examination, you detect a distinct smell of pear drops on her breath. Despite the severity of her condition, she insists on leaving to attend a friend's birthday party. After discussing the potential consequences of leaving, she appears to comprehend the risks and can articulate her decision. However, her parents believe she should remain for treatment. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Accept the patient's decision to leave
Correct Answer: Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment
Explanation:This person is below the age of 16 but is considered to have the ability to make decisions. As a result, they have the right to consent to treatment without the need for parental approval. However, if they choose to decline treatment, their best interests must be taken into account. In this case, the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis, and leaving without treatment would likely result in death. Therefore, it would be reasonable to conclude that it is in their best interests to receive treatment.
According to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidelines, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person when it comes to treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, if a child lacks the capacity to consent, parental consent can be relied upon. In Scotland, parents are unable to authorize treatment that a competent young person has refused. In England, Wales, and Northern Ireland, the laws regarding parents overriding a young person’s competent refusal are complex.
When a young person refuses treatment, the harm to their rights must be carefully weighed against the benefits of treatment to make decisions that are in their best interests. This is outlined in paragraphs 30-33 of the GMC’s ethical guidance for individuals aged 0-18 years.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage
Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.
Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started her periods. She has also not developed any other secondary sexual characteristics. Upon examination, she is found to be proportionate but notably short in stature. Additionally, she has wide-spaced nipples, low-set ears, and subtle neck webbing. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic coarctation
Explanation:Individuals with Turner’s syndrome (XO) often exhibit physical characteristics such as a webbed neck, low set ears, and widely spaced nipples. Short stature and primary amenorrhea are common, along with a degree of puberty failure. Other physical features to look for include a wide carrying angle, down-sloping eyes with partial ptosis, and a low posterior hairline. Turner’s syndrome is frequently linked to aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve, while other cardiac abnormalities may be associated with different genetic conditions.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that has been present for the past two hours. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse recently. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left testicle and scrotum. The left side lacks the cremaster reflex, and lifting the affected testicle causes more pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the testis twists on the remnant of the processus vaginalis, leading to restricted blood flow. The main symptom is severe testicular pain, which may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The affected testis may also appear swollen and red. The cremaster reflex may be absent on the affected side, and elevating the testicle can worsen the pain.
While the patient had unprotected sex recently, the symptoms are not typical of epididymitis, which usually involves urinary symptoms and relief of pain with testicular elevation (Prehn’s sign positive).Acute Scrotal Disorders in Children: Differential Diagnoses
When a child presents with an acute scrotal problem, it is crucial to rule out testicular torsion as it requires immediate surgical intervention. The most common age for testicular torsion is around puberty. On the other hand, an irreducible inguinal hernia is more common in children under two years old. Epididymitis, which is inflammation of the epididymis, is rare in prepubescent children. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a child with an acute scrotal disorder. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment can prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Your Answer: Female sex
Correct Answer: Afro-Caribbean origin
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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