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Question 1
Correct
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A 67-year-old female presents with a history of morning stiffness and arthritis of her hand joints. She is being investigated for rheumatoid arthritis.Which test is most sensitive and specific for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-CCP
Explanation:Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) is an antibody present in 60-80% of rheumatoid arthritis patients. It is measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). It may be present years before the onset of the disease and is associated with a more severe disease course.While most patients with anti-CCP antibodies are also positive for rheumatoid factor (RF), RF antibody is not specific for rheumatoid arthritis as it can occur in patients with other conditions such as infections and other autoimmune conditions.ESR, antinuclear antibodies(ANA) and Synovial fluid examination are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia:
Your Answer: Hyperreflexia
Correct Answer: Muscle weakness
Explanation:Clinical features of hyperkalaemia may include: paraesthesia, muscle weakness or paralysis, cardiac conduction abnormalities and dysrhythmias. Clinical features of hypokalaemia may include: muscle weakness, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, ascending paralysis resulting in respiratory failure, constipation, gut ileus with distension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, impaired ADH action with polyuria and polydipsia, ECG changes and cardiac arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a lesion to the vestibulocochlear nerve:
Your Answer: Tinnitus
Correct Answer: Hyperacusis
Explanation:Hyperacusis is increased acuity of hearing with hypersensitivity to low tones resulting from paralysis of the stapedius muscle, innervated by the facial nerve. General sensation to the face and to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by the divisions of the trigeminal nerve (although taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the facial nerve). Eye movements are mediated by the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerve. Ptosis results from paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris, innervated by the oculomotor nerve, or the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the sympathetic chain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:
Your Answer: Enterochromaffin-like cell
Correct Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A mother has serious concerns about vaccinating her child. She has read about many contraindications and risks in the papers and would like to discuss them with you.One of these is a valid contraindication to vaccination.
Your Answer: History of skin rash following egg ingestion
Correct Answer: None of the other options
Explanation:The options listed in this question are not true contraindications to vaccination. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘none of the other options’.The contraindications to vaccination are:Confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to another component in the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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All of the following typically occurs as part of normal inspiration except:
Your Answer: Contraction of the diaphragm
Correct Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles
Explanation:Passive inspiration is a result of contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs). In inspiration, several movements occur. These are:1. elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), 2. elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) 3. depression of the diaphragm. These result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and air is drawn into the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 7
Correct
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In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?
Your Answer: 94 - 98%
Explanation:Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman was brought in an ambulance to the Emergency Department with a 1-hour history of left-sided weakness and dysphasia. A CT scan is performed, and primary intracerebral haemorrhage is excluded as a possible cause. She is prepared for thrombolysis when her blood pressure is recorded at 200/115 mmHg.Out of the following, which step would be the most appropriate as the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Losartan 50 mg PO
Correct Answer: Labetalol 10 mg IV
Explanation:A patient suffering from acute ischemic stroke can commonly present with hypertensive emergencies. Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a patient with:1. Systolic blood pressure greater than 185 mmHg2. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 110 mmHgBut delaying thrombolytic therapy is associated with increased morbidity in patients with acute ischemic stroke. Managing high blood pressure in acute ischemic stroke requires a slower and more controlled reduction in BP. In the presence of an ischaemic stroke, rapid reduction of MAP can compromise blood flow, causing further ischemia and worsening of the neurological deficit.Intravenous labetalol is the agent of choice. The dose is 10 mg IV over 1-2 minutes. This dose can be repeated, or an infusion can be set up that runs at 2-8 mg/minute. Thrombolysis can be performed once the blood pressure is brought down to less than 180/105 mmHg.A nitrate infusion (for example, Isoket) can be used as an alternative in patients with contraindications to the use of beta-blockers (e.g., asthma, heart block, cardiac failure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You review a 50-year-old man that is requesting the seasonal influenza vaccination.Which of the following single clinical risk groups is NOT eligible to receive the seasonal influenza vaccination? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Children aged 2 to 7 years
Correct Answer: Patients over the age of 50
Explanation:Patients with hypertension are only eligible for the seasonal influenza vaccination if they have co-existent cardiac complications.The UK national policy is that the seasonal influenza vaccine should be offered to the following groups:All those aged 65 years and olderChildren aged 2 to 15 yearsResidents of nursing and residential homes for the elderly (and other long-stay facilities)Carers of persons whose welfare may be at risk if the carer falls illAll those aged 6 months or older in a clinical risk groupThe following table outlines the clinical risk groups that are considered eligible for the vaccine:CategoryExamples of eligible groupsRespiratory diseaseCOPDInterstitial lung diseaseCystic fibrosisAsthma (requiring oral or inhaled steroids)Heart diseaseCongenital heart diseaseChronic heart failureCoronary heart disease (requiring medication and/or follow-up)Hypertension with cardiac complicationsKidney diseaseChronic kidney diseaseNephrotic syndromeRenal transplant patientsLiver diseaseLiver cirrhosisChronic hepatitisBiliary atresiaNeurological diseaseCerebrovascular accidentTransient ischaemic attackEndocrine diseaseType 1 and 2 diabetesImmunosuppressionPatients undergoing chemotherapyPatients taking immunosuppressive drug therapy (including systemic steroids)Asplenia or splenic dysfunctionHIV infectionPregnancyAll pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Examples of type IV reactions includes:Contact dermatitisHashimoto’s thyroiditisPrimary biliary cholangitisTuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)Chronic transplant rejectionGranulomatous inflammation (e.g. sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man suffers from a shoulder injury that damaged the nerve that innervates the infraspinatus muscle.Which of the following nerves may most likely be affected?
Your Answer: The lower subscapular nerve
Correct Answer: The suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) innervates the infraspinatus. It originates at the superior trunk of the brachial plexus. It runs laterally across the lateral cervical region to supply the infraspinatus and also the supraspinatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 12
Correct
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Which patient group are most commonly associated with infection with Klebsiella spp:
Your Answer: Hospitalised patients
Explanation:Klebsiella spp. are facultatively anaerobic Gram-negative rods, found in the normal intestinal and respiratory flora. These organisms are usually opportunistic pathogens that cause nosocomial infections, most commonly pneumonia and UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 13
Correct
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A patient presents with an adducted eye at rest which cannot abduct past the midline, which of the following cranial nerves is most likely to be affected:
Your Answer: Abducens nerve
Explanation:Abducens nerve palsies result in a convergent squint at rest (eye turned inwards) with inability to abduct the eye because of unopposed action of the rectus medialis. The patient complains of horizontal diplopia when looking towards the affected side. With complete paralysis, the eye cannot abduct past the midline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28 year old man presents with abdominal pain and constipation, and bloods show hypocalcaemia. Which of the following hormones is increased as a result of hypocalcaemia?
Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone or parathyrin, is a peptide hormone that is secreted by the parathyroid glands, which lie immediately behind the thyroid gland. In particular, this hormone is made by chief cells. It regulates the serum calcium concentration through its effects on bone, kidney, and intestine. This hormone is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma Ca2+ concentration and it serves to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.PTH activates Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane and as a result, increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron. It inhibits reabsorption of phosphate and this increases its excretion by in the proximal tubule of the nephron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. On inquiring about drug history, you find out that he has been taking around 8-10 paracetamol to help relieve the pain. Out of the following, which one is believed to be the main mechanism of action for paracetamol?
Your Answer: Blockade of the production of thromboxane A2
Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-3 receptors
Explanation:The FDA categorizes Paracetamol as an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) as it is believed to selectively inhibit cyclo-oxygenase 3 (COX-3) receptors in the brain and spinal cord. COX-3 is a unique variant of the more known COX-1 and COX-2. It is responsible for the production of prostaglandins in central areas, which sensitizes free nerve endings to the chemical mediators of pain. Therefore, by selectively inhibiting COX-3, paracetamol effectively reduces pain sensation by increasing the pain threshold.Acetaminophen does not inhibit cyclooxygenase in peripheral tissues and, therefore, has no peripheral anti-inflammatory effects.The antipyretic actions of acetaminophen are likely attributed to direct action on heat-regulating centres in the brain, resulting in peripheral vasodilation, sweating, and loss of body heat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about propofol is TRUE:
Your Answer: Propofol increases the intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer: Propofol has some antiemetic action.
Explanation:Propofol has some antiemetic properties. It’s for this reason that it’s used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Propofol is mostly processed in the liver, with the kidneys excreting just around 1% of it unaltered. Propofol, unlike thiopental, does not produce tissue necrosis when it is extravasated. Propofol lowers intracranial pressure via lowering brain metabolic rate and cerebral blood flow. Propofol is thought to be safe for people with bronchial asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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After eating a peanut, a 24-year-old lady develops an anaphylactic reaction.Which of the following should be the first step to manage the situation?Â
Your Answer: Administer IM adrenaline
Explanation:The most important medicine for treating anaphylactic responses is adrenaline. It decreases oedema and reverses peripheral vasodilation as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist. Its beta-adrenergic effects widen the bronchial airways, enhance the force of cardiac contraction, and inhibit the release of histamine and leukotriene. The first medicine to be given is adrenaline, and the IM route is optimal for most people.In anaphylaxis, age-related dosages of IM adrenaline are given:150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000) for children under the age of six  300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000) for a child aged 6 to 12 years 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) for children aged 12 and above500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) for adultsÂ
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and pain in the ears. Upon physical examination, it was observed that the mastoid area is erythematous and there is a presence of a boggy, tender mass. A diagnosis of acute mastoiditis was made.Which of the following parts of the temporal bone is most likely involved?
Your Answer: Squamous part
Correct Answer: Petrous part
Explanation:Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a portion of the temporal bone referred to as the mastoid air cells. The mastoid air cells are epithelium lined bone septations that are continuous with the middle ear cavity.The temporal bone is composed of four parts: the mastoid process, the petrous pyramid, the squamous, and tympanic portions. The mastoid process and the petrous pyramid are the portions of particular interest because of the prevalence of suppurations within these parts of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?
Your Answer: Sexually transmitted
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily spread by sexual contact or through transmission during childbirth. It causes gonorrhoea which is a purulent infection of the mucous membrane surfaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year old man presented himself to the emergency room with persistent cough. During history taking, a record of his previous sputum sample was seen and the report stated that it tested positive for AFB (acid-fast bacilli). What is the most likely pathogen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:M. tuberculosis is the causative agent of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The most commonly used diagnostic test for the diagnosis of pulmonary TB is the direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) wherein the presence of acid-fast bacilli (AFB) is tested. The most common method is the hot method or also known as Ziehl-Neelsen method. This is a staining method special for Mycobacteria species because they are known to be acid-fast which means that they are not easily decolorized by acid alcohol. Once the DSSM tests positive for acid-fast bacilli, this indicates possible infection with tuberculosis. The gold standard for diagnosis is still culture but Mycobacteria species are slow-growers that is why DSSM is considered the best diagnostic method. A positive AFB smear and correlation with symptoms is usually used by physicians to create a final diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body. In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following comprises a negative feedback mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Detectors, comparators, a variable set point and effectors
Explanation:Negative feedback loops, also known as inhibitory loops, play a crucial role in controlling human health. It is a self-regulating mechanism of some sort. A negative feedback system is made up of three main components: a detector (often neural receptor cells) that measures the variable in question and provides input to the comparator; a comparator (usually a neural assembly in the central nervous system) that receives input from the detector, compares the variable to the variable set point, and determines whether or not a response is required. The comparator activates an effector (typically muscular or glandular tissue) to conduct the appropriate reaction to return the variable to its set point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve
Explanation:Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the recurrent (thenar) branch of median nerve (root value C8 and T1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke. Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome
Explanation:Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic acidosis.What is the most likely cause of her lactic acidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure
Explanation:Lactic acidosis is a common finding in critically ill patients and commonly associated with other serious underlying pathologies. It occurs when pH is 5 mmol/L. Anion gap is increased in lactic acidosis.Acquired lactic acidosis is classified into two subtypes:Type A: lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia andType B: due to non-hypoxic processes affecting the production and elimination of lactateSome causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:Type A lactic acidosisLeft ventricular failureSevere anaemiaShock (including septic shock)AsphyxiaCardiac arrestCO poisoningRespiratory failureSevere asthma and COPDType B lactic acidosis:Regional hypoperfusionRenal failureLiver failureSepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)Thiamine deficiencyAlcoholic ketoacidosisDiabetic ketoacidosisCyanide poisoningMethanol poisoningBiguanide poisoning
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the correct sequential order of the phases of healing:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodelling
Explanation:Acute wound healing has four main stages: haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Wound Healing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.
Explanation:Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male who is suffering from a chest infection. You decide to start giving the patient antibiotics, however he is allergic to penicillin. You consult with one of your co-workers about the best choice of antibiotic to give. From the following choices, which is considered an example of bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Antibiotics that are bactericidal kill bacteria, while antibiotics that are bacteriostatic limit their growth or reproduction. The antibiotics grouped into these two classes are summarized in the table below:Bactericidal antibioticsBacteriostatic antibioticsVancomycinMetronidazoleFluoroquinolone, such as ciprofloxacinPenicillins, such as benzylpenicillinCephalosporin, such as ceftriaxoneCo-trimoxazoleTetracyclines, such as doxycyclineMacrolides, such as erythromycinSulphonamides, such as sulfamethoxazoleClindamycinTrimethoprimChloramphenicol
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired and her speech is slurred. The following are her observations and results: HR 118, BP 92/58, SaO2 96%HR 118, 11/15  The following are the results of his arterial blood gas (ABG):pH: 7.24 pO 2 : 9.4 kPa PCO2 : 3.3 kPa HCO 3 -: 22 mmol/l Na + : 143 mmol/l Cl – : 99 mmol/l Lactate: 5 IU/lWhich of the following statements about this patient is TRUE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated
Explanation:The interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) aids in the measurement of a patient’s pulmonary gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG vary a little depending on the analyser, but they are roughly as follows:Variable RangepH 7.35 – 7.45PaO2 10 – 14 kPaPaCO2 4.5 – 6 kPaHCO3- 22 – 26 mmol/lBase excess -2 – 2 mmol/lThe patient’s history indicates that she has taken an overdose in this case. Because her GCS is 11/15 and she can communicate with slurred speech, she is clearly managing her own airway, there is no current justification for intubation.The following are the relevant ABG findings:Hypoxia (mild)pH has been lowered (acidaemia)PCO2 levels are low.bicarbonate in its natural stateLactate levels have increasedThe anion gap represents the concentration of all the unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is the difference between the primary measured cations and the primary measured anions in the serum. It can be calculated using the following formula:Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]The reference range varies depending on the technique of measurement, but it is usually between 8 and 16 mmol/L.The following formula can be used to compute her anion gap:Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]Anion gap = 22As a result, it is clear that she has a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap.The following are some of the causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis:Type A lactic acidosisType B lactic acidosisShock (including septic shock)Left ventricular failureSevere anaemiaAsphyxiaCardiac arrestCO poisoningRespiratory failureSevere asthma and COPDRegional hypoperfusionRenal failureLiver failureSepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)Thiamine deficiencyAlcoholic ketoacidosisDiabetic ketoacidosisCyanide poisoningMethanol poisoningBiguanide poisoning
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The following are all examples of type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:Examples of type III reactions include:Extrinsic allergic alveolitisSystemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritisReactive arthritisRheumatoid arthritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
