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  • Question 1 - Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of?

      Your Answer: Dosulepin

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethylclomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse?

      Your Answer: Zuclopenthixol decanoate

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Identify the option that represents a secondary amine. ...

    Correct

    • Identify the option that represents a secondary amine.

      Your Answer: Desipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: First and Second Generation

      Tricyclic antidepressants are classified into two generations: first generation of tertiary amines, and second generation of secondary amines. The secondary amines are known to have fewer side effects and primarily affect noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines are believed to enhance both serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Secondary amines include Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, and Amoxapine. On the other hand, tertiary amines include Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Dosulepin (Dothiepin), Doxepin, Trimipramine, and Butriptyline.

      By understanding the differences between the two generations of tricyclic antidepressants, healthcare professionals can better tailor their treatment plans to their patients’ needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which antipsychotic is commonly linked to priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic is commonly linked to priapism?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots?

      Your Answer: IM procyclidine should be routinely administered with each dose of haloperidol decanoate

      Correct Answer: A test dose is not required for paliperidone palmitate if a patient has received an oral loading dose

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the options below is not a symptom commonly associated with antidepressant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not a symptom commonly associated with antidepressant withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a true statement about Stevens Johnson syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Stevens Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is a common side-effect of carbamazepine use

      Correct Answer: Skin lesions are usually preceded by fever and malaise

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a rare but life-threatening skin reaction disease, often caused by carbamazepine. Symptoms include widespread blisters, flat atypical targets-shaped lesions, erythema, necrosis, and extensive sloughing of the epidermis. Patients may experience fever, myalgia, and general weakness for 1 to 3 days before the development of cutaneous lesions. Hospitalization may be necessary for serious dermatological reactions, which can be fatal. SJS/TEN cases typically occur within the first few months of treatment, with a median latency period of 15 days for the development of SJS with carbamazepine. These reactions are estimated to occur in 1 to 6 per 10,000 new users in countries with mainly Caucasian populations. It is important to note that skin lesions are usually preceded by fever and malaise by 1-3 days in patients newly prescribed carbamazepine. Immediate discontinuation of the causative agent is essential once identified.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.4
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  • Question 9 - What does Bazett's formula correct for when deriving the corrected QT interval from...

    Incorrect

    • What does Bazett's formula correct for when deriving the corrected QT interval from the QT interval?

      Your Answer: The use of antipsychotic medication

      Correct Answer: Heart rate

      Explanation:

      Bazett’s formula adjusts the QT interval to account for variations in heart rate.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating...

    Correct

    • What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 300 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which antidepressant has the highest risk of causing QTc prolongation? ...

    Correct

    • Which antidepressant has the highest risk of causing QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When bodybuilders and performance athletes misuse drugs, which one is most likely to...

    Correct

    • When bodybuilders and performance athletes misuse drugs, which one is most likely to cause mood swings and aggressive behavior?

      Your Answer: Nandrolone

      Explanation:

      Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications

      Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.

      There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.

      Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.

      Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a...

    Incorrect

    • A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a prolonged QT interval. You request some routine bloods, which of the following would best explain his ECG finding?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalemia

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition state that there are several independent risk factors for QT prolongation, including being female, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and having anorexia nervosa.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide - 50-100 hours

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam - 10-20 hours

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the half-lives of certain benzodiazepines, including diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and zolpidem with a half-life of 2-6 hours.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - How does varenicline work in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does varenicline work in the body?

      Your Answer: Partial agonist at the mu-opioid receptor

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

      Explanation:

      Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy

      Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia and her doctor recommends starting her on donepezil. What is the mechanism of action of donepezil?

      Your Answer: Non-reversible selective inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

      Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a medication that selectively inhibits acetylcholinesterase (AChE) without affecting butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE). It is a long-acting, reversible inhibitor that is commonly used to treat dementia. Other drugs used to treat dementia include Rivastigmine, Galantamine, and Memantine. These medications work by either preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain of by blocking the chemical messenger glutamate, which can cause further damage to brain cells. By increasing communication between nerve cells of reducing damage, these medications can temporarily improve of stabilize the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      231.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused by antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Botulinum toxin

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A drug that has a constant elimination rate regardless of its concentration exhibits...

    Incorrect

    • A drug that has a constant elimination rate regardless of its concentration exhibits what characteristic?

      Your Answer: First order kinetics

      Correct Answer: Zero order kinetics

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?

      Your Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults? ...

    Correct

    • What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Adults require a minimum effective dose of 20 mg of fluoxetine.

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds

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