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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, but there are no signs of increased intracranial pressure. What medication should be given?

      Your Answer: Mannitol

      Correct Answer: Nimodipine

      Explanation:

      To prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhages, nimodipine is utilized. This medication is a calcium channel blocker that lessens cerebral vasospasm and enhances results. It is given to the majority of subarachnoid haemorrhage cases.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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  • Question 2 - A 84-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of persistent, heightened vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 84-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of persistent, heightened vaginal discharge. She reports that this has been going on for approximately a month and the odor is so unpleasant that she needs to change pads every 2 hours. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and painless. There is a small amount of fecal matter on the pad. A digital rectal examination reveals normal perianal sensation and an empty rectal vault. What is the probable cause of her symptom?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of diverticulitis and passing of faeces or flatus through the vaginal passage suggest the presence of a colovaginal fistula, which is a complication of diverticular disease. This abnormal connection between the colon and vagina can occur during or after episodes of diverticulitis, leading to continuous leakage of faecal matter through the vagina. This condition can be diagnosed even in the absence of active infection or inflammation. Digital rectal examination will not reveal any findings as diverticulosis does not occur in the rectum. Age-related faecal incontinence is not a valid explanation as it is not a normal part of ageing and always has an underlying cause. Bacterial vaginosis and cauda equina syndrome are not relevant to this case.

      Understanding Diverticulitis

      Diverticulitis is a condition where an outpouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This outpouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.

      Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.

      Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect CXR, AXR, and CT scans can help diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. Severe cases may require hospitalization for IV antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain and non-bilious vomiting that has persisted for two days. She reports retching but no longer brings anything up. During the examination, the surgical registrar observes abdominal distension and widespread guarding and rigidity. The registrar requests the insertion of a nasogastric tube, but three attempts fail. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Correct Answer: Gastric volvulus

      Explanation:

      A gastric volvulus can be identified by a triad of symptoms including vomiting, pain, and unsuccessful attempts to pass an NG tube. Although a distended abdomen may indicate obstruction and vomiting may suggest small bowel involvement, the key indicator is the inability to pass an NG tube. Borchardt’s triad, consisting of severe epigastric pain, retching, and failure to pass an NG tube, is a helpful mnemonic for remembering these symptoms.

      Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon

      Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.

      Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.

      Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.

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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies are provided below.

      Hemoglobin: 95g/L (normal range: 135-180g/L)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume: 58fL (normal range: 78-100fL)
      Platelets: 210* 109/L (normal range: 150-400* 109/L)
      White Blood Cells: 7* 109/L (normal range: 4-11* 109/L)
      Ferritin: 14 ug/L (normal range: 41-400 ug/L)
      Total Iron Binding Capacity: 80 micromoles/L (normal range: 45-66 micromoles/L)

      What is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Faecal occult blood

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The complete blood count results indicate that the patient has microcytic anemia, which is caused by iron deficiency according to the iron studies. In men over 60 years old, iron deficiency anemia is often linked to colorectal cancer, so urgent referral to colorectal services is necessary for suspected cancer cases. A colonoscopy and OGD are likely to be performed. CEA is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is not used for diagnosis due to its poor specificity. B12 and folate deficiency would result in an increased MCV, so they are not the cause of this patient’s anemia. If bone marrow failure were suspected, a bone marrow biopsy might be performed, but the patient’s platelets and white cell count would be reduced in such cases.

      Understanding Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of mortality rates. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%. Understanding the location of the cancer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. With early detection and proper medical care, the prognosis for colorectal cancer can be improved.

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  • Question 5 - An 87-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He was...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He was found on his bathroom floor early this morning by his caregiver. He fell over last night, and had been unable to get up since then. He is now complaining of generalised aches and pains. He has no past medical history and does not take any regular medications.

      On examination, he is cold and appears frail; he has a heart rate of 70/minute, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. His urine is also “muddy-looking'.

      Blood tests showed the following:
      pH 7.29
      Bicarbonate 15 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 1559 u/l
      Creatinine 301 ”mol/l
      Potassium 5.7 mmol/l

      Routine blood tests a few weeks ago showed:
      pH 7.41
      Bicarbonate 27 mmol/l
      Creatine kinase 99 u/l
      Creatinine 61 ”mol/l
      Potassium 4.2 mmol/l

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of this patient’s acute kidney injury (AKI)?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and history strongly suggest that their AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The patient’s prolonged immobility, muscle pain, and discolored urine (due to myoglobinuria) support this diagnosis, as does the metabolic acidosis seen on the VBG. The fact that the patient had normal kidney function just a few weeks ago suggests that this is an AKI rather than CKD. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely given the absence of hypertension, atherosclerosis, and antihypertensive medication use. While some forms of glomerulonephritis can cause a rapidly progressive AKI, the patient has not reported any other symptoms (such as hemoptysis) that would suggest this as a cause. Chronic interstitial nephritis typically results in a gradual decline in kidney function, which is not consistent with the patient’s rapid deterioration.

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a common cause of acute kidney injury (AKI) that affects the functioning of the kidney by causing necrosis of renal tubular epithelial cells. The condition is reversible in its early stages if the cause is removed. There are two main causes of ATN: ischaemia and nephrotoxins. Ischaemia can be caused by shock or sepsis, while nephrotoxins can be caused by aminoglycosides, myoglobin secondary to rhabdomyolysis, radiocontrast agents, or lead. Features of ATN include raised urea, creatinine, and potassium levels, as well as muddy brown casts in the urine. Histopathological features include tubular epithelium necrosis, dilation of the tubules, and necrotic cells obstructing the tubule lumen. ATN has three phases: the oliguric phase, the polyuric phase, and the recovery phase.

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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden abdominal pain. The pain started after he had fried chicken for lunch. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.7ÂșC, pulse 120/min, respiratory rate 30/min, blood pressure 87/72 mmHg, and his abdomen is tender with generalised guarding. Blood tests reveal abnormal levels of Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, and lactate. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what would be the most appropriate definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics and supportive care

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy

      Explanation:

      While sodium chloride may be administered to increase the patient’s blood pressure, it is not considered the definitive treatment for their condition. In cases of ascending cholangitis, the preferred course of action involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), as the patient typically experiences symptoms such as jaundice, fever, and pain in the upper right quadrant. Similarly, for acute cholecystitis, the initial treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics and supportive care, with an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy recommended within a week of diagnosis to prevent recurrence, particularly if the patient presents with fever and pain in the upper right quadrant.

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when an artery supplying the small bowel is blocked, usually due to an embolism. The most common artery affected is the superior mesenteric artery. Patients with a history of atrial fibrillation are at a higher risk of developing this condition. The symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia include sudden and severe abdominal pain that is not consistent with physical exam findings.

      Immediate laparotomy is usually required for patients with advanced ischemia, such as peritonitis or sepsis. Delaying surgery can lead to a poor prognosis.

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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for a lower anterior resection with the goal of restoring intestinal continuity. What type of stoma would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: End colostomy

      Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Explanation:

      The loop ileostomy is a technique used to redirect the flow of bowel contents away from a distal anastomosis, typically in cases of rectal cancer. When the ileostomy is reversed, it allows for the restoration of bowel continuity and can greatly enhance the patient’s quality of life.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of a painless lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of a painless lump in his testicle that has been present for a month. After an ultrasound, the GP refers him to the hospital for suspected testicular cancer. The patient undergoes an orchidectomy and is diagnosed with stage 1 seminoma. What is the most likely tumour marker to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      Seminomas are often associated with elevated levels of LDH.
      Prostate cancer is frequently accompanied by an increase in PSA.
      Colorectal cancer is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CEA.
      Melanomas and schwannomas often result in elevated levels of S-100.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the examination, you notice a small, direct inguinal hernia. He asks about the likelihood of strangulation if he chooses not to have surgery within the next year. What is the estimated risk of strangulation over the next 12 months?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Indirect hernias are more likely to cause bowel obstruction, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Elective repair of hernias is generally safe, but emergency repair carries a higher risk of mortality, especially in older patients.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty passing urine for the past 6...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty passing urine for the past 6 hours and is in significant discomfort. Upon catheterization, 1 litre of urine is drained and the patient experiences relief. During a PR examination, an enlarged, hard, nodular prostate is detected. The Urology Registrar advises admission and observation for 24 hours due to the risk of complications following an episode of acute urinary retention. What is the most crucial test to repeat within the next 12 hours to aid in identifying such a complication?

      Your Answer: Serum creatinine

      Explanation:

      This man experienced sudden inability to urinate and upon examination, it appears that his enlarged prostate (possibly due to cancer) is the cause. Acute kidney damage can occur as a result of this condition, so the best course of action is to test his serum creatinine levels. It’s crucial to closely monitor his fluid intake over the next two days as some patients may experience excessive urination after a catheter is inserted. Additionally, it’s important to note that the PSA levels may be inaccurately elevated after catheterization.

      Prostate cancer is currently the most prevalent cancer among adult males in the UK, and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths in men, following lung cancer. The risk factors for prostate cancer include increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Localized prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, as the cancer tends to develop in the outer part of the prostate gland, causing no obstructive symptoms in the early stages. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, haematuria or haematospermia, and pain in the back, perineal or testicular area. A digital rectal examination may reveal asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus. In addition, an isotope bone scan can be used to detect metastatic prostate cancer, which appears as multiple, irregular, randomly distributed foci of high-grade activity involving the spine, ribs, sternum, pelvic and femoral bones.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (3/10) 30%
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