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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Disturbance of psychosocial function

      Explanation:

      Hypomania is a milder form of mania (F30.1) that lacks hallucinations of delusions but still presents persistent and noticeable changes in mood and behavior that exceed those seen in cyclothymia (F34.0). To diagnose hypomania, these features must be present for several consecutive days and cause significant interference with work of social activity. However, if the disruption is severe of complete, mania (F30.1 of F30.2) should be considered instead.

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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of ataxia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of ataxia, abnormal eye movements, confusion, and signs of dehydration. He also has a low blood sugar level. What is the initial treatment that should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiamine IM

      Correct Answer: Thiamine IV, IV replacement of other vitamins, then both orally thereafter

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires immediate replacement of thiamine. The preferred route of administration is intravenous (IV). It is important to note that correcting hypoglycemia should not be attempted before thiamine replenishment, as a large dose of sugar, especially glucose, can worsen the encephalopathy. Rehydration to restore blood volume should follow as needed.

      In the UK, Pabrinex is the usual treatment for thiamine replacement, which also contains vitamins B2, B3, B6, and C. Parenteral treatment is given for at least 5 days. The prognosis depends on the severity of the condition. Early treatment leads to rapid and complete recovery. However, established Wernicke’s encephalopathy can have serious long-term consequences, and patients may require permanent inpatient care.

      Source: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg100/chapter/Recommendations#wernickes-encephalopathy
      https://academic.oup.com/alcalc/article/48/4/514/533760

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  • Question 3 - Samantha is a middle-aged woman who has been brought to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a middle-aged woman who has been brought to the Emergency department by her husband. He is concerned about her recent behavior and wants her to be evaluated by a medical professional.
      Samantha is initially resistant to speaking with you, stating that she only wants to speak with a specialist. She explains that she is a successful businesswoman and needs to be treated by someone who understands her unique needs. She is unsure why her husband has brought her in, but suspects that he is jealous of her success. As she speaks, she paces the room and is anxious to return to work.
      Her husband tells you that Samantha has been working long hours and has become increasingly irritable and demanding. She has been spending a lot of money on expensive clothes and accessories, and he recently discovered that she has been using their joint credit card to make these purchases. When confronted, Samantha said that she needed to look her best to maintain her professional image and that she deserved to treat herself.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder type 2

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that there is no collateral history available and the duration of the observed behaviour pattern is unknown. Additionally, the individual’s excessive panting and pacing may indicate motor over-activity, which is consistent with symptoms of mania. Therefore, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a drug-induced state as a potential differential diagnosis. However, until further information is obtained, it is crucial to treat this as an episode of mania.

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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.

      Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?

      Your Answer: No preference

      Correct Answer: In a quiet corner

      Explanation:

      Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.

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  • Question 5 - In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of...

    Incorrect

    • In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dependent personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.

      Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.

      The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.

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  • Question 6 - What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and publishing, is known for walking barefoot and dressing casually, and prefers solitude over socializing with colleagues and students?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is a personality disorder that is only recognized in the ICD-10. It is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise of criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and insensitivity to social norms. When diagnosing this disorder, it is important to differentiate it from an autistic spectrum disorder. One way to do this is to look for a lack of reliance on routines and rituals, as well as a lack of desire for friendship of relationships. While individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder may struggle with relationships, they typically desire them and experience feelings of loneliness.

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  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing auditory hallucinations upon waking up. She also reports instances of feeling paralyzed even after awakening. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sleep terror

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of narcolepsy, specifically hypnopompic hallucinations and sleep paralysis. Narcolepsy is characterized by a set of symptoms including sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Primary hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness without the associated features of other sleep disorders of narcolepsy. REM sleep behavioral disorder (RBD) is characterized by complex behaviors during sleep, typically occurring during the longest periods of REM sleep and accompanied by vivid dream recall. Sleep terror disorder, also known as night terror, occurs during partial arousal from delta sleep and is typically amnestic. In contrast, the patient in the scenario was able to recall the episode of sleep paralysis. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed based on the symptoms described, as the criteria for hallucinations and an additional symptom from criterion A must be present for a significant portion of the time, and the symptoms can be attributed to narcolepsy.

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  • Question 8 - A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused,...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused, maintaining a positive relationship with their partner, and having no desire to permanently identify as the opposite gender. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for this individual's situation?

      Your Answer: Transsexualism

      Correct Answer: Dual-role transvestism

      Explanation:

      Types of Gender and Sexual Identity

      Dual-role transvestism refers to the act of wearing clothing typically associated with the opposite sex without experiencing discomfort with one’s biological gender of a desire to permanently live as the opposite sex. This behavior is not accompanied by sexual arousal, which distinguishes it from fetishistic transvestism. Fetishistic transvestism, on the other hand, involves wearing clothing of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual arousal. Transsexualism is a desire to live as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with one’s biological gender and a desire for gender reassignment. Sexual dysfunction encompasses a range of difficulties with sexual desire and performance.

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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there is no apparent cause, you schedule an appointment to conduct a thorough assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that he experiences strong cravings to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. He then takes laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and his body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refeeding syndrome

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement. In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

      Paragraph spacing:

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement.

      In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely.

      A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

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      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 10 - A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several weeks whilst she has been on vacation. Upon her return, she finds him confused and unclothed on the couch in his apartment. He is unsteady on his feet and unable to recall how long he has been there, suggesting that he has also just returned from vacation. He points to rats on the floor of his apartment, which his daughter cannot see. He is taken to the hospital, where he is diagnosed with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following conditions would make this man more susceptible to the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is alcohol dependence, which can lead to a depletion of B1 stores and result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While hypertension and type 2 diabetes are risk factors for vascular disease, they typically present with focal neurological signs rather than confusion. The patient’s triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, along with visual hallucinations and confabulation, suggest a Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result from a thiamine deficiency. While anorexia nervosa can also cause B1 deficiency, it is an unlikely condition in an elderly gentleman, and other conditions causing malabsorption can also trigger Wernicke’s. While diabetics can experience delirium from low blood sugars and infections, the specific symptoms described here are not typical of these causes. While people with learning difficulties may be more prone to delirium with concurrent illness, it is not likely to cause the specific triad of symptoms seen in this patient.

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  • Question 11 - As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old male patient in the early hours of the morning on a general medical ward. He was admitted with pancreatitis twelve hours ago and has been medically cleared. The patient has no significant past medical of psychiatric history, but he has become paranoid and delusional, believing that there are bugs crawling under his skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Newly diagnosed schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens (DTs)

      Explanation:

      The presence of acute psychosis, visual hallucinations, and formications in an individual with pancreatitis likely caused by alcohol suggests severe alcohol withdrawal of DTs, which should have been prevented with prophylactic treatment using Librium (chlordiazepoxide). Schizophrenia is improbable due to the patient’s age, sudden onset of symptoms, and lack of first rank symptoms. Korsakoff’s of amnesic syndrome typically precedes Wernicke’s, and parenteral Pabrinex (thiamine) is usually administered prophylactically. Since the patient was an inpatient, it is unlikely that he had access to illicit drugs, and the absence of post-seizure psychosis rules out that possibility.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a major fire incident. He is worried that he might be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
      What symptom would be the most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flashbacks of the traumatic event

      Explanation:

      While EMDR can be beneficial for various disorders, its effectiveness does not hold any diagnostic significance for PTSD. The presence of flashbacks of distressing reliving experiences is the primary requirement for diagnosing PTSD, and other symptoms such as autonomic disturbance, avoidance of work, and increased sensitivity to noise are not necessary for diagnosis.

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  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements is true about OCD? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about OCD?

      Your Answer: Is related to oedipal fixation

      Correct Answer: Can be diagnosed in the presence of delusions and hallucinations

      Explanation:

      According to current diagnostic criteria in both the ICD-10 and DSM IV, OCD can co-occur with psychotic disorders. OCD is a chronic and debilitating disorder characterized by intrusive and distressing obsessions and/of compulsions that cause significant distress to the individual and their loved ones. Obsessions are recurrent and unpleasant thoughts, images, of impulses, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors that a person feels compelled to perform. These behaviors are often ritualistic and follow intrusive thoughts, with resistance to carrying out compulsions resulting in increased anxiety. Patients with OCD typically recognize that their obsessions and compulsions are irrational and experience them as ego dystonic. While an obsessional personality is over-represented among OCD patients, about a third of patients have other types of personality. While magnetic resonance imaging has not revealed any consistent structural brain abnormality specific to OCD patients, studies using SPECT and PET have shown increased activity in certain brain regions, such as the frontal lobe and orbitofrontal activity. Contrary to Freud’s theory, OCD has been linked to anal fixation rather than oedipal fixation, with obsessional symptoms occurring as a way of avoiding impulses related to the subsequent genital and oedipal stages.

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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old retired teacher was referred to your team by the liaison service...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher was referred to your team by the liaison service for further assessment following a recent episode of confusion during hospital admission for a surgical procedure. Her acute confusion was treated with haloperidol and she developed severe rigidity.
      The patient's family reported that she has been somewhat forgetful in the last 12-18 months. They also gave a longer history of disturbed sleep almost once a week, in which she screams and sometimes acts out her dreams. She herself was more troubled by 'tremors' and few episodes in evenings when she saw a 'strange army' in her lounge. On MMSE she scored 23/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Research has shown that there is a connection between idiopathic rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (IRBD) and the onset of neurodegenerative diseases that involve alpha synucleinopathy, such as Parkinson’s disease (PD), dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), and multiple systems atrophy (MSA).

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  • Question 15 - You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician....

    Correct

    • You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician. She is convinced that George Clooney is deeply in love with her. Over the past two months, she has attempted to send him 50 handwritten letters, along with numerous gifts. She frequently visits locations associated with the actor and places where he is attending public events. She believes that he is unable to express his true feelings for her due to the potential backlash from his wife and fans. What syndrome is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: De Clérambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      De ClĂ©rambault’s syndrome is characterized by amorous delusions where the patient believes that a person of higher social status, often a public figure, is in love with them. These delusions are not based on any actual contact of encouragement from the subject. Patients with this syndrome may also experience delusions of persecution. Due to their strong belief in the reality of their delusions, patients often lack insight and may not seek help. Treatment can include psychotherapy and antipsychotics. Other syndromes with delusional symptoms include Capgras syndrome, Cotard’s syndrome, Ekbom’s syndrome, and Othello’s syndrome.

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  • Question 16 - Based on the provided information, what is the probable diagnosis for Mr Smith's...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the provided information, what is the probable diagnosis for Mr Smith's previous mental health condition, given his lifelong tendencies towards perfectionism and high standards that have caused conflicts in his personal and professional life, as well as strained relationships with family members?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive/anankastic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The consistent and long-standing nature of this behavior suggests that it may be indicative of a personality of developmental disorder. According to the DSM-IV criteria for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, individuals may exhibit a pervasive preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control in various contexts, often at the expense of flexibility, efficiency, and openness. To meet the criteria for this disorder, an individual must display at least four of the following behaviors: excessive concern with details, rules, lists, order, of schedules; perfectionism that interferes with task completion; excessive devotion to work and productivity; over-conscientiousness and inflexibility regarding morality, ethics, of values; difficulty discarding worthless objects; reluctance to delegate tasks of work with others; a miserly spending style; and rigidity and stubbornness.

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  • Question 17 - John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and the therapist is struggling to understand his constant need for attention and validation. They are also confused by his rapid mood swings, going from feeling hopeless and defeated to being overly confident and grandiose. He often shows up to sessions in flashy clothing and talks about his accomplishments and successes. His wife mentions that he has always been this way and that his charisma was what initially attracted her to him.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      John’s behavior is causing distress and impairment in his ability to participate in family therapy and may have contributed to his child’s depression. His behavior is consistent with histrionic personality disorder, which is only found in the ICD-10. This disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, a shallow and unstable emotional state, a constant need for attention and excitement, inappropriate seductive behavior, and an excessive concern with physical appearance. Other associated features may include egocentricity, self-indulgence, a constant desire for appreciation, easily hurt feelings, and manipulative behavior to meet personal needs.

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  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Coprophagia

      Correct Answer: Vocal tics

      Explanation:

      Tourette’s syndrome, also known as combined vocal and motor tic disorder, is characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Inattention may be present but is not a defining symptom. Coprophagia, of the act of eating feces, is not associated with Tourette’s syndrome and is more commonly seen in individuals with learning difficulties of chronic psychotic disorders. Glossolalia, of speaking in tongues, is not related to psychopathology and is not a feature of Tourette’s syndrome.

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  • Question 19 - What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?

      Your Answer: Breath-holding

      Correct Answer: Checking locks

      Explanation:

      The typical compulsive behaviors in OCD involve checking locks, taps, and safety issues, which serve to alleviate anxiety and reinforce the behavior. Breath-holding is not a common manifestation of OCD, nor is hand-wringing of stepping on cracks in the pavement. While fear of contamination is a common obsession, it is not a compulsion in and of itself. Instead, the compulsion typically involves behaviors aimed at avoiding contamination.

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  • Question 20 - Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in the ICD-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      While schizotypal personality disorder is included in the DSM, it is not listed as a separate diagnosis in the ICD-10. Instead, it is classified under the umbrella of schizophrenia. However, all of the other personality disorders mentioned are recognized in both the ICD-10 and DSM.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Diagnosis (14/19) 74%
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