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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
      During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
      The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms

      When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:

      Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.

      Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.

      Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about atopic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about atopic eczema?

      Your Answer: Should be treated in its early stages with topical corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life

      Explanation:

      Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.

      It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has developed papules and pustules with visible telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne Rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments

      Acne Rosacea:
      Acne rosacea is a chronic skin condition that typically affects women and people with fair skin between the ages of 30-50. The exact cause is unknown, but environmental factors such as alcohol, caffeine, heat, and stress can aggravate the condition. Symptoms include a persistent erythematosus rash on the face, particularly over the nose and cheeks, with associated telangiectasia. Treatment involves lifestyle modifications and pharmacological interventions with topical or oral antibiotics.

      Acne Vulgaris:
      Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory response to Propionibacterium acnes, a normal skin commensal. It commonly affects adolescents and presents with a variety of lesions ranging from comedones to cysts and scars. It predominantly affects areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands, such as the face, back, and chest.

      Discoid Lupus Erythematosus:
      Discoid lupus erythematosus is a cutaneous form of lupus erythematosus that affects sun-exposed areas of the skin. It typically presents in women between the ages of 20-40 and presents as red patches on the nose, face, back of the neck, shoulders, and hands. If left untreated, it can cause hypertrophic, wart-like scars.

      Pityriasis Rosea:
      Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting skin condition that affects young adults, mostly women. It presents with salmon-pink, flat or slightly raised patches with surrounding scale known as a collarette. The rash is usually symmetrical and distributed predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs.

      Psoriasis:
      Psoriasis is an autoimmune skin condition that presents with red scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the limbs and behind the ears. Treatment involves topical or systemic medications to control symptoms and prevent flares.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.

      During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.

      What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?

      Your Answer: Urticaria pigmentosa

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes

      Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:

      Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.

      Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.

      High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.

      Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous café-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.

      Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Burrows

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old pharmacist with a longstanding diagnosis of sarcoidosis presents to the Dermatology Clinic with an unsightly rash. The rash has been present for a number of years, but the area affected is becoming more prominent and is making her feel very self-conscious. She has been told previously that the rash is connected to her sarcoidosis; however, she would like to know if anything can be done to treat it.
      Which one of the following dermatological conditions is diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Correct Answer: Lupus pernio

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Manifestations of Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. Cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can vary and may present differently depending on the stage of the disease. Here are some common cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis:

      Lupus pernio: This is a specific skin involvement that affects the bridge of the nose and the area beneath the eyes and cheeks. It is diagnostic for the chronic form of sarcoidosis. The lesions are typically large, bluish-red and dusky purple, infiltrated, plaque-like nodules.

      Erythema nodosum: This is seen in the acute stage of sarcoidosis, but it is also seen in many other diseases.

      Keloid formation: This is a classic cutaneous lesion of sarcoidosis, but it is not diagnostic of chronic sarcoidosis.

      Subcutaneous nodules: These can also be seen in rheumatoid arthritis and are not diagnostic of sarcoidosis.

      It is important to note that cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis can be nonspecific and may resemble other skin conditions. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
      ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
      antiphospholipid antibody negative
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

      Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide

      Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a...

    Correct

    • At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis

      Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including Dovobet®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.

      Dovobet® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.

      Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.

      Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.

      Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.

      Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work lately presents with an itchy, red rash above the right corner of his mouth. The rash appeared 4 months ago, went away briefly, and then returned. He has used a topical corticosteroid to alleviate the symptoms, but had to discontinue it due to a flare-up of his facial acne. He admits to drinking excessive amounts of alcohol recently. On examination, there is a poorly defined red rash on the right side of his face, affecting the nasolabial fold. Additionally, there are fine, oily scales present.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is characterized by an ill-defined, itchy, erythematosus rash with fine, greasy scales. It typically affects the scalp, nasolabial fold, or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: Often seen in patients with coeliac disease and malabsorption, this condition presents with intensely itchy grouped vesicles/papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbow, knee, upper back, and buttocks.

      Lichen Planus: This condition is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, red to violaceous polygonal papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrists.

      Atopic Dermatitis: This condition involves flexural regions in adult patients and is often associated with a history of atopy. The acute form of atopic dermatitis presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.

      Psoriasis: This condition is characterized by thick, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
      What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus albicans

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Impetigo and its Causes

      Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

    Scabies is a skin condition...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by tiny mites that burrow into the skin and lay eggs. It is highly contagious and can spread through close physical contact or sharing of personal items such as clothing or bedding. Symptoms include intense itching, rash, and small bumps or blisters on the skin. Treatment typically involves prescription creams or lotions that kill the mites and their eggs. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies to prevent further spread of the condition.

      Your Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. The infestation spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact between people, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. Scabies can be transmitted through direct, prolonged, skin-to-skin contact with an infested person, and it can also spread by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, the breast, or shoulder blades. The condition is highly contagious and can easily spread to sexual partners and household members. However, a quick handshake or hug is usually not enough to spread the infestation.

      Fortunately, there are several treatments available for scabies, including permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
      What rash does the patient have?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome

      Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.

      Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.

      Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.

      In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.

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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her hands and face. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders

      Vitiligo, Pityriasis alba, Albinism, Melasma, and Melanoma are all skin pigmentation disorders that affect people of different ages and ethnicities. Vitiligo is a rare autoimmune condition that destroys melanocytes, causing white patches on the skin. Pityriasis alba is a scaly, white patch that usually affects children’s facial skin. Albinism is a genetic disorder that reduces tyrosinase activity in melanocytes, resulting in a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises. Melasma is a condition of increased pigmentation, usually occurring underneath the eyes, and is common in pregnant women and oral contraceptive users. Melanoma is a malignant skin cancer that develops from melanocytes and is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles. Understanding these disorders can help individuals identify and manage their skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.

      Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.

      Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.

      Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.

      Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
      Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis

      Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents. She had a fever for four days, and as this disappeared she was noted to have a rash.

      On examination, she is apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Common Rashes and Their Characteristics

      Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash that appears as small, pink, flat spots on the skin. The rash usually starts on the trunk and spreads to the limbs, neck, and face. Along with the rash, the infected person may also experience fever and swollen lymph nodes.

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes red, raised, and blistering lesions on the skin. The lesions are usually circular or oval in shape and have a target-like appearance. They can appear on any part of the body, but are most commonly found on the hands, feet, and face. The condition is often triggered by an infection or medication.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a blood disorder that causes a low platelet count. This can lead to easy bruising and bleeding, and in some cases, a petechial rash. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that are caused by bleeding under the skin.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels. This can lead to a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs, as well as joint pain and abdominal pain. The condition is most commonly seen in children.

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This means that the rash does not fade when pressure is applied to it. Other symptoms of the infection include fever, headache, and vomiting.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations

      There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.

      Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.

      Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.

      Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is suffering from acne vulgaris, with inflamed, open comedones on his face, chest and neck. What micro-organism degrades sebum to produce inflammatory fatty acids in such cases?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and their Causes

      Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition among adolescents and young adults, particularly men. Hormonal changes stimulate the sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, leading to the formation of open comedones, which are inflamed follicles with a central dark plug of keratin. Propionibacterium acnes is responsible for breaking down complex lipids in sebum into free fatty acids, which cause inflammation of hair follicles. Treatment with antibiotics and 13-cis-retinoic acid can alleviate the symptoms of acne vulgaris.

      Molluscum contagiosum is caused by the poxvirus, which leads to epidermal hyperplasia and ellipsoid molluscum bodies in the stratum corneum.

      Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly contagious and often affects healthy children. The infection starts as a reddened macule and progresses to multiple serum-filled pustules that rupture and form a yellowish crust.

      Papillomavirus causes warts or verrucae, which are common on the hands. They appear as several papules with a rough, irregular surface.

      Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur, a fungus that causes superficial fungal infections in the skin. Other forms of tinea are also caused by fungal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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