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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’ gestation with a swollen left lower leg. She reported experiencing some pain and swelling in both legs in the past week, but woke up this morning with the left leg being tender and red.
      Her medical history is unremarkable, but she is feeling short of breath and her vital signs are stable.
      Upon examination, there is bilateral lower limb swelling, with the left side being significantly more swollen and painful upon palpation. The skin is also warm to the touch. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows no abnormalities.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound Doppler of left lower leg

      Correct Answer: Commence low-molecular-weight heparin treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, a swollen, erythematosus, and painful leg is treated as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) until proven otherwise. A risk assessment should be performed at the booking visit to identify factors that increase the likelihood of venous thromboembolism (VTE). If a pregnant patient presents with symptoms suspicious of a DVT, treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin should be administered immediately, provided there are no contraindications. Treatment should not be delayed until investigations are performed, but if a Doppler scan of the deep veins in the legs precludes the diagnosis of DVT, treatment can be discontinued.

      If investigations confirm DVT, treatment should continue throughout pregnancy and for 6 weeks postpartum, with a total of at least 3 months of treatment. Contraindications to low-molecular-weight heparin include heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, allergy, haemorrhagic disorders, recent cerebral haemorrhage, peptic ulceration, and active bleeding. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the standard method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolus, but due to the risk of radiation to the fetus, a ventilation-perfusion scan is used as first-line in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy, but may be considered as an alternative to heparin in cases where heparin is contraindicated and a VTE is diagnosed, following discussion with the haematology team.

      If a leg Doppler confirms a DVT, no further investigation is required, and the patient can continue on treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin. However, if a Doppler shows no evidence of DVT, a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out a cause of shortness of breath such as pneumonia. If the chest X-ray is negative, a ventilation-perfusion scan should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolus. Ultrasound Doppler is the gold standard for diagnosing DVT and is essential in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You admit a 70-year-old patient who has severe hypercalcaemia, (3.5 mmol/l).
    You are asked...

    Incorrect

    • You admit a 70-year-old patient who has severe hypercalcaemia, (3.5 mmol/l).
      You are asked to commence her on a diuretic likely to promote calcium loss.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide as a Treatment for Severe Hypercalcaemia

      Furosemide is a type of loop diuretic that helps in the excretion of calcium. It is commonly used to manage severe hypercalcaemia, a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. To prevent dehydration, IV fluid replacement is usually administered alongside furosemide. On the other hand, thiazide diuretics such as bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide can promote hypercalcaemia by decreasing the amount of calcium lost in the urine. Meanwhile, potassium sparing diuretics like spironolactone and triamterene have a minimal effect on calcium loss in the urine compared to loop diuretics. Overall, furosemide is an effective treatment for severe hypercalcaemia due to its ability to promote calcium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of the release of glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      The Adrenal Cortex and Pituitary Gland

      The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers, the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata secretes glucocorticoids and the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens. The release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by ACTH.

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is secreted from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption. Growth hormone, secreted by the anterior pituitary, promotes the growth of soft tissues. Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary is under inhibitory control from dopamine.

      In summary, the adrenal cortex and pituitary gland play important roles in regulating hormone secretion and bodily functions. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone, glucocorticoids, and adrenal androgens, while the pituitary gland secretes ADH, growth hormone, and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl who is eight weeks pregnant undergoes a surgical termination of pregnancy and reports feeling fine a few hours later. What is the most frequent risk associated with a TOP?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      This condition is rare, but it is more common in pregnancies that have exceeded 20 weeks of gestation.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP worried about not feeling any fetal movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP worried about not feeling any fetal movements yet. She is currently 22 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. She is anxious because her peers who have been pregnant had already experienced their baby's movements by this stage. When should a referral to an obstetrician be made for absence of fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 23 weeks

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if there are no fetal movements felt by 24 weeks. While most women feel their baby moving around 18-20 weeks, it can range from 16-24 weeks. If there is a lack of fetal movement, it could be due to various reasons, including miscarriages and stillbirth, which can be distressing. Therefore, it is important to check the fetal heartbeat and consider an ultrasound to detect any abnormalities if no fetal movements are felt by 24 weeks.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his groin. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no prior surgeries or medical issues. The lump has been present for three weeks, causes mild discomfort, and has not increased in size. During the physical examination, a soft, reducible lump is observed on the left side, located above the pubic tubercle, without skin changes. The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia. What test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No reappearance during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      To prevent the recurrence of an indirect inguinal hernia, pressure should be applied over the deep inguinal ring after reducing the hernia. This is because the hernia protrudes through the inguinal canal and covering the deep inguinal ring prevents it from reappearing during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing. Noting bilateral herniae is not relevant to confirming or refuting the diagnosis, and there is no such thing as a femoral ring. If the lump reappears during coughing while covering the deep inguinal ring, it may indicate a direct hernia instead. It is important to distinguish between indirect and direct herniae during surgical repair, as they occur in different locations relative to the inferior epigastric blood vessels due to a hole in the internal oblique and transversus muscles.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance trip to Australia and is worried about the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant medical history and is in good health.
      What is the best advice to offer him?

      Your Answer: No aspirin, flight stockings, ankle exercises, aisle seat

      Correct Answer: No aspirin, ankle exercises, aisle seat and no alcohol

      Explanation:

      Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis for Long-Haul Flights

      When it comes to preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) during long-haul flights, the approach varies depending on the patient’s risk level. For low-risk patients without history of VTE, cardiac disease, major illness, or recent surgery, NICE recommends avoiding long periods of immobility by taking an aisle seat, performing ankle exercises, and wearing loose-fitting clothing. It’s also important to stay hydrated and avoid alcohol.

      Moderate to high-risk patients, on the other hand, may benefit from compression stockings, especially if they have a history of VTE, cardiac disease, varicose veins, or are pregnant or postpartum. High-risk patients with thrombophilia, cancer, or recent surgery requiring general anesthesia should also consider compression stockings.

      While some sources recommend a single dose of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis during long-haul flights, current NICE guidelines do not recommend this approach. Instead, patients should focus on staying mobile, wearing compression stockings if necessary, and staying hydrated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
      What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer

      Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical intervention, he has developed liver failure. What is the most probable outcome of the liver failure?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis is recognised complication

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine reduces morbidity and mortality in fulminant hepatic failure

      Fulminant hepatic failure is a serious condition that can lead to severe hypoglycemia and exacerbate encephalopathy in 40% of patients. This condition can develop rapidly and recur with sepsis. Lactic acidosis is also a common complication due to decreased hepatic lactate clearance, poor peripheral perfusion, and increased lactate production. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with fulminant hepatic failure is poor if they have a blood pH less than 7.0, prolonged prothrombin time (more than 100s), and serum creatinine more than 300 uM. Mortality is also greater in patients over 40 years of age. However, the use of intravenous N-acetylcysteine has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in these patients.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor patients with fulminant hepatic failure and address any complications that arise. The use of N-acetylcysteine can be a valuable tool in improving outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
      (slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis

      Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic asking for the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic asking for the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive. She reports that she has used it before and it has been effective for her. However, she has a medical history of migraines with aura and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer and is awaiting further tests for unexplained vaginal bleeding. Additionally, she is a heavy smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What makes this contraceptive method unsuitable for her?

      Your Answer: Current breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Injectable progesterone contraceptives should not be used in individuals with current breast cancer, as it is an absolute contraindication as per the UK medical eligibility criteria. Smoking more than 15 cigarettes a day is also a contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill, while migraine with aura is a contraindication for the same. Additionally, unexplained vaginal bleeding is a contraindication for starting the intrauterine device (IUD) or the intrauterine system (IUS).

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of itchy eyes. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of itchy eyes. She reports a sensation of grittiness in both eyes and observes that they stick together in the morning. The grittiness is most severe upon waking up. She denies experiencing any other symptoms.
      What is the probable diagnosis based on her presentation?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing bilateral grittiness that is worse in the mornings and sticking eyelids, which is a classic symptom of blepharitis. Dry eye syndrome, which is more common in the elderly, can also cause a bilateral gritty feeling, but symptoms are typically worse at the end of the day and may be associated with pain. Cellulitis, on the other hand, would present with redness, inflammation, tenderness, and signs of infection such as fever or discharge. A basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the eyelid may cause a gritty feeling in the eye, but it would be unilateral, not bilateral. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever) may also cause itchy eyes, but other symptoms such as sneezing, a runny nose, and an itchy nose are typically present.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical examination. The chest X-ray report reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On closer questioning the patient admits to symptoms of fatigue and weight loss and painful blue-red nodules on her shins.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Erythema Nodosum

      Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by granulomas affecting multiple systems, with lung involvement being the most common. It typically affects young adults, especially females and Afro-Caribbean populations. While the cause is unknown, infections and environmental factors have been suggested. Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and fever, as well as erythema nodosum and anterior uveitis. Acute sarcoidosis usually resolves without treatment, while chronic sarcoidosis requires steroids and monitoring of lung function, ESR, CRP, and serum ACE levels.

      Tuberculosis is a potential differential diagnosis, as it can also present with erythema nodosum and hilar lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of a fever and risk factors make it less likely.

      Lung cancer is rare in young adults and typically presents as a mass or pleural effusion on X-ray.

      Pneumonia is an infection of the lung parenchyma, but the absence of infective symptoms and consolidation on X-ray make it less likely.

      Mesothelioma is a cancer associated with asbestos exposure and typically presents in older individuals. The absence of exposure and the patient’s age make it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital, following a myocardial infarction. He had no further chest pain but had developed swelling of the breasts, which was uncomfortable on occasion. Upon examination, tender bilateral gynaecomastia was observed.
      Which medication he is currently taking is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Eplerenone

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and congestive heart failure. However, it has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that even small changes in dosage can cause significant side effects. Common side effects include dizziness, skin reactions, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Gynaecomastia, or breast enlargement in males, is a rare side effect of digoxin. Signs of digoxin toxicity include drowsiness, confusion, bradycardia, shortness of breath, and blurred vision. Other medications that can cause gynaecomastia include anti-androgens, 5-a reductase inhibitors, exogenous estrogens, and certain chemotherapy agents.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in atrial fibrillation, treat hypertension and congestive heart failure, and prevent secondary heart attacks. Side effects of bisoprolol and beta-blockers in general include vivid dreams, mood changes, bronchospasm in asthmatics, dizziness, and nausea.

      Aspirin is an anti-platelet medication that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and Reye’s syndrome.

      Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and post-MI. It can cause hyperkalemia, diarrhea, constipation, dizziness, hypotension, and hyponatremia. Unlike spironolactone, another aldosterone antagonist, eplerenone does not have anti-androgenic, estrogenic, or progestogenic properties.

      Simvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol. Side effects include muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, and tiredness. Other cardiovascular drugs that may cause gynaecomastia include spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, amiodarone, and calcium channel blockers. Many drugs can cause gynaecomastia, including anti-androgens, antimicrobial medications, anti-ulcer drugs, hormonal therapies, psychoactive drugs, and drugs of abuse. Aspirin is generally well-tolerated at anti-platelet dosages, with bleeding being the main adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular contractions. During a vaginal examination, the midwife confirms that the mother is currently in the first stage of labor. When does this stage of labor typically end?

      Your Answer: 10 cm cervical dilation

      Explanation:

      The first stage of labour begins with the onset of true labour and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10cm. During this stage, regular contractions occur and the cervix gradually dilates. It is important to note that although 4 cm and 6cm cervical dilation occur during this stage, it does not end until the cervix is fully effaced at 10cm. The second stage of labour ends with the birth of the foetus, not the first.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers from narcolepsy. Following this the student presents the case to her consultant, who quizzes the student about normal sleep regulation.
      Which neurotransmitter is chiefly involved in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep regulation?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Sleep: Understanding the Role of Noradrenaline, Acetylcholine, Serotonin, and Dopamine

      Sleep architecture refers to the organization of sleep, which is divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM sleep is further divided into stages 1-4, with higher stages indicating deeper sleep. During sleep, individuals cycle between different stages of NREM and REM sleep. While the function of neurotransmitters in sleep is not fully understood, acetylcholine is believed to play a role in the progression of sleep stages, while noradrenaline is the primary regulator of REM sleep. Serotonin’s function in sleep is poorly understood, but studies have shown that its destruction can lead to total insomnia. Dopamine, on the other hand, is not implicated in the regulation of sleep in current neurotransmitter models. Abnormalities in cholinergic function can cause sleep fragmentation in individuals with dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by her General Practitioner. The ophthalmologist makes a diagnosis of amblyopia (lazy eye) and suggests occlusion therapy.
      What is occlusion therapy and how is it used to treat amblyopia in a 5-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Covering the normal eye with a patch

      Explanation:

      Different Treatment Options for Amblyopia and Squint

      Amblyopia and squint are two common eye conditions that can affect children. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to manage these conditions. Here are some of the most common treatments:

      1. Occlusion therapy: This involves covering either the normal or abnormal eye with a patch to force the child to use the other eye. This helps to strengthen the muscles in the weaker eye and improve vision.

      2. Penalisation therapy: If a child is non-compliant with occlusion therapy, atropine drops can be used in the normal eye to blur vision. This forces the child to use the weaker eye and improve its strength.

      3. Corrective glasses: Glasses can be used to correct any refractive errors that may be contributing to the squint. This can help to improve the alignment of the eyes.

      4. Surgical management: In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the misalignment of the eyes. This involves shortening or altering the insertion point of the extra-ocular muscles.

      By using one or a combination of these treatments, children with amblyopia and squint can improve their vision and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in a car accident. The team decides that rapid sequence induction with intubation is necessary to treat his condition. Etomidate is chosen as the induction agent. What significant adverse effect should be kept in mind when administering this anesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Adrenal suppression

      Explanation:

      Adrenal suppression is a potential side effect of using etomidate, an induction agent commonly used in rapid sequence induction. This occurs due to the inhibition of the 11-beta-hydroxylase enzyme, resulting in decreased cortisol production and secretion from the adrenal gland. It is important to be aware of this side effect as it can lead to severe hypotension and require treatment with steroids.

      Ketamine, another sedative used for procedural sedation, may cause hallucinations and behavioral changes. It is recommended to use ketamine in a calm and quiet environment whenever possible.

      Volatile halogenated anaesthetics like isoflurane have been associated with hepatotoxicity, but etomidate is not known to cause any hepatic disorders.

      Suxamethonium, a neuromuscular blocking drug used in anaesthetics, can cause malignant hyperthermia, a dangerous side effect that can lead to multi-organ failure and cardiovascular collapse. Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
      What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension

      Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old woman presents with severe colicky central abdominal pain, vomiting, and the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with severe colicky central abdominal pain, vomiting, and the passage of abnormal stool which had the appearance of redcurrant jelly.

      On examination, temperature was 37.5°C, she has a pulse of 120 bpm with an irregular rate. Palpation of the abdomen revealed generalised tenderness and peritonitis.

      Investigations reveal:

      Haemoglobin 128 g/L (120-160)

      White cell count 30 ×109/L (4-11)

      Lactate 9 mmol/L (<2)

      pH 7.10 (7.36-7.44)

      She was taken to theatre for emergency surgery.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through consistent history and symptoms. In most cases, the underlying pathology is embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery, which is often caused by undiagnosed atrial fibrillation. One of the key indicators of this condition is a lactic acidosis, which can be detected through an arterial blood gas analysis. The lactate levels are typically elevated due to the ischaemic tissue in the gut, resulting in a metabolic acidosis. It is important to note that a raised white blood cell count is not necessarily an indication of infection, but rather a part of the systemic inflammatory response to severe illness with ischaemic tissue. these key indicators can help in the diagnosis and treatment of acute mesenteric ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old rugby player presents to the clinic with complaints of decreased sensation...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old rugby player presents to the clinic with complaints of decreased sensation in the upper right shoulder region. He has a history of multiple anterior shoulder dislocations. Upon examination, you note reduced sensation over the regimental badge area. What nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary

      Explanation:

      The Axillary Nerve and its Functions

      The axillary nerve is a terminal branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, carrying fibres from C5 and C6. It has both sensory and motor components, with the former innervating the regimental badge area over the upper arm and the latter innervating teres minor and deltoid muscles. The nerve passes through the quadrangular space in the posterior aspect of the arm, alongside the posterior circumflex humeral artery, before winding around the surgical neck of the humerus.

      The axillary nerve can be damaged by repeated anterior shoulder dislocation, which may cause potential harm to the nerve. Rapid intervention to relocate the shoulder can help reduce the risk of damage to the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.

      Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.

      If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What drug is known to act as a partial agonist for hormone receptors?...

    Incorrect

    • What drug is known to act as a partial agonist for hormone receptors?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone

      Correct Answer: Raloxifene

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene and Cyproterone: Partial Agonists in Hormone Therapy

      Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). As a partial agonist of estrogen receptors, it has a mixed effect on different parts of the body. It acts as an estrogen receptor agonist on bone, which helps to prevent bone loss in postmenopausal women. However, it only has partial activity with respect to cholesterol metabolism, leading to a decrease in total and LDL cholesterol. Unlike other estrogen-like hormones, raloxifene does not have significant effects on the hypothalamus or breast tissue.

      On the other hand, cyproterone is a progesterone that is used in hormone therapy to treat conditions such as acne, hirsutism, and androgenetic alopecia. As a progesterone, it binds to progesterone receptors and has a similar effect to the natural hormone.

      Partial agonists, such as raloxifene, are compounds that bind to a given receptor but have only partial activity compared to a full agonist. This means that they can have different effects on different parts of the body, depending on the receptor they bind to. In contrast, full agonists, such as naturally occurring hormones, have a complete effect on their respective receptor sites.

      In summary, raloxifene and cyproterone are examples of partial agonists in hormone therapy. While they have specific uses and benefits, their effects on the body are different from those of full agonists. the differences between these types of compounds is important for healthcare professionals when prescribing medications for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. They have previously been diagnosed with a condition by their former GP. The GP orders blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Adjusted calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      Phosphate 2.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      PTH 12.53 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      Urea 22.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      Creatinine 540 µmol/L (60-120)
      25 OH Vit D 32 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CKD3

      Correct Answer: CKD 5

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chronic Kidney Disease from Acute Renal Failure

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and acute renal failure (ARF) can both result in elevated creatinine levels, but other factors can help differentiate between the two conditions. In the case of a patient with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, CKD is more likely than ARF. These metabolic changes are commonly seen in CKD 4-5 and are not typically present in ARF of short duration. Additionally, the relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea suggests CKD rather than ARF, which can be caused by dehydration and result in even higher urea levels.

      This patient likely has CKD and may already be dependent on dialysis or under regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients begin dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As an F1 doctor on a paediatric ward, you come across a 9-year-old...

    Correct

    • As an F1 doctor on a paediatric ward, you come across a 9-year-old girl with her parents. She has been diagnosed with West syndrome and is part of a research trial that requires regular EEG recordings. While discussing her progress during the ward round, the girl interrupts and expresses her dislike for the 'horrible head stickers'. She becomes visibly upset when the trial is mentioned. What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Raise your concerns with your consultant about the child's obvious objections in being involved with the trial

      Explanation:

      It is unprofessional to disregard the concerns regarding the patient’s participation in the trial. As an F1 doctor, it would be an extreme measure to remove the child from the trial or report the matter to the GMC without consulting a senior colleague first. It would be advisable to discuss the parents’ comprehension of the trial, but it would be more appropriate to approach the consultant initially, as they would have more knowledge of the research being conducted. The GMC guidelines also state that children and young people should not be involved in research if they object or appear to object, even if their parents provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past four days. He denies any recent unprotected sexual intercourse or penile discharge. The patient has a medical history of gallstones and was hospitalised last year due to a severe blood reaction after consuming a meal rich in broad beans. On examination, he has suprapubic tenderness but no renal angle tenderness. All his observations are within normal limits. Which antibiotic should the doctor avoid prescribing to this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is a suitable option for this patient as it does not exhibit cross-reactivity with penicillins and there are no contraindications present.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard...

    Incorrect

    • The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 20 mg/dL.
      What is the z score for a man with a cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL?

      Your Answer: 15

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Z Scores

      Z scores are a way of measuring how much a particular data point deviates from the mean of its distribution, expressed in terms of the standard deviation of that distribution. Essentially, a z score tells us how many standard deviations away from the mean a particular observation is. To calculate a z score, we take the difference between the observation and the mean, and divide that by the standard deviation. For example, if we have an observation of 150 from a population with a mean of 135 and a standard deviation of 15, the z score would be 1.0. This tells us that the observation is one standard deviation above the mean. Z scores are a useful tool for comparing data points from different distributions, as they allow us to standardize the data and make meaningful comparisons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is a true statement about BCG vaccination? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about BCG vaccination?

      Your Answer: Is a killed polysaccharide antigen vaccine

      Correct Answer: Provides protection against leprosy

      Explanation:

      The Versatility of the BCG Vaccine

      The BCG vaccine was originally developed to combat Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis. However, research has shown that it also provides protection against leprosy, with up to 80% efficacy. This is because the organism that causes leprosy, M. leprae, is also a type of Mycobacterium. While the potential use of the BCG vaccine in clinical practice for leprosy is still being considered, it is currently recommended for newborns at high risk of exposure.

      Previously, the BCG vaccine was given to children at comprehensive school entry (age 11-13). However, recent updates suggest that it should be administered to neonates in high-risk groups. In addition to its use in preventing tuberculosis and leprosy, the BCG vaccine has also been found to stimulate the immune system for the treatment of some cancers, particularly bladder carcinoma.

      It is important to note that the BCG vaccine should not be given to children who have a strongly positive tuberculin test. Before administration, a Mantoux test should be documented to ensure the safety and efficacy of the vaccine. Overall, the versatility of the BCG vaccine highlights its potential to combat a range of diseases and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain chest x-ray examination suggests bronchial carcinoma. However, before a tissue diagnosis can be made, the patient unexpectedly dies in the hospital due to a large haemoptysis. With the consent of the family, a post-mortem examination is conducted, which reveals that the patient had tuberculosis and not carcinoma. Is there a requirement to report this to a specific authority, and if so, which one?

      Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Diseases Control

      Explanation:

      Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the Proper Officer of the Local Authority or local Health Protection Unit. The Proper Officer is usually the local Consultant in Communicable Disease Control. The diseases that are notifiable include anthrax, cholera, diphtheria, measles, tuberculosis, and yellow fever, among others. The attending doctor should fill out a notification certificate immediately on diagnosis of a suspected notifiable disease and should not wait for laboratory confirmation. The certificate should be sent to the Proper Officer within three days or verbally within 24 hours if the case is considered urgent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks gestation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks gestation. She has not visited her GP in a long time and is not currently on any medication. There is no significant medical or family history of neural tube defects. During the examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. What treatment options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 milligrams

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should receive a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is not high enough to require treatment with labetalol. Aspirin 75 milligrams is typically given to pregnant women starting at 12 weeks to lower the risk of pre-eclampsia, but this patient does not have any risk factors for pre-eclampsia and is not currently experiencing hypertension. If the patient had a healthy BMI, they would be prescribed the standard dose of 400 micrograms of folic acid to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      Adjusted calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      PTH: 8.09 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      Creatinine: 145 μmol/L (60-120)
      25 OH Vit D: 48 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Creatinine and Calcium Homeostasis in CKD 3 Patients

      In patients with CKD 3, elevated creatinine levels indicate a decline in kidney function. However, interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without considering factors such as body habitus and muscle mass. To determine the severity of CKD 3, an eGFR calculation can be performed, which typically results in a value of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2.

      Patients with CKD 3 may experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. While plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate are usually normal at this stage, subtle changes may occur as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4. For example, reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase can lead to a slight increase in PTH levels.

      Vitamin D insufficiency is common in CKD3 patients and can be caused by various risk factors such as old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color. While suboptimal levels of vitamin D may contribute to calcium homeostasis abnormalities, it is not the only factor to consider in CKD3 management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 27-year-old male is hit on the side of his head above the...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male is hit on the side of his head above the ear by a golf ball traveling at high speed. He briefly loses consciousness, regains it, but then gradually loses consciousness again. He is rushed to the emergency department where a CT scan of his head reveals an extradural hematoma on the right side. Upon examination, it is observed that his right pupil is dilated and unresponsive. Which cranial nerve is being compressed to account for his pupillary abnormality?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Brain Herniation

      Brain herniation is a condition that occurs when the intracranial pressure rises to pathological levels, causing normal brain structures to be forcefully displaced. This displacement of the brain can lead to the compression of important structures, with the brain stem being the most critical. When the brain stem is compressed, it is referred to as ‘coning,’ which is a severe sign that requires immediate medical attention. The treatment for brain herniation may involve osmotherapy with hypertonic saline or mannitol, or surgical decompression.

      There are different types of brain herniation, including subfalcine, central, transtentorial/uncal herniation, tonsillar, and transcalvarial. Subfalcine herniation occurs when the cingulate gyrus is displaced under the falx cerebri. Central herniation, on the other hand, involves the downward displacement of the brain. Transtentorial/uncal herniation is characterized by the displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe under the tentorium cerebelli, which can cause an ipsilateral fixed, dilated pupil and contralateral paralysis. Tonsillar herniation occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are displaced through the foramen magnum, leading to compression of the cardiorespiratory center. Finally, transcalvarial herniation occurs when the brain is displaced through a defect in the skull, such as a fracture or craniotomy site. Understanding the different types of brain herniation is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      158.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:

      Day 1:
      - Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 95 µmol/L

      Day 2:
      - Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 90 µmol/L

      Day 3:
      - Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 76 µmol/L

      Day 4:
      - Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L

      Normal Ranges:
      - Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
      - Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L

      On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
      - Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
      - Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
      - Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -

      What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.

      Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.

      Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
      What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?

      Your Answer: Risk of pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and uncontrollable behaviors. She reports feeling distressed and finds relief only by repeating a certain phrase in her mind. She has no significant medical history and is in good physical health.

      What is the symptom being described in this case?

      Your Answer: Compulsion

      Explanation:

      An obsession is an unwelcome and intrusive thought that causes discomfort. On the other hand, a compulsion is an irrational behavior that a person feels compelled to perform in order to alleviate the anxiety caused by the obsession.

      Compulsions can be either mental or physical, such as repeatedly washing one’s hands or checking if a door is locked. In contrast, thought insertion is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person feels that their thoughts are not their own and have been inserted by someone else.

      Intrusive thoughts are involuntary and unwelcome thoughts that can be experienced by anyone. However, if they become frequent and distressing, they can develop into obsessions, which are a more severe form of intrusive thoughts. Obsessions, when coupled with compulsions, are a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

      Lastly, thought withdrawal is another delusion found in schizophrenia where a person believes that their thoughts have been taken away by an external force.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old man is five days post-laparotomy for subacute intestinal obstruction secondary to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is five days post-laparotomy for subacute intestinal obstruction secondary to underlying Crohn’s disease. He has suddenly become breathless and complains of pleuritic chest pain. On examination, the patient is confused and his chest is clear to auscultation. However, he is tachypnoeic and has a mildly raised jugular venous pressure (JVP).
      Observations:
      Blood pressure 97/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 126 bpm
      Respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute
      Oxygen saturations 92% on room air
      Arterial blood gas:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.53 7.35–7.45
      Pa(CO2) 3.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Pa(O2) 8.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and right bundle branch block.
      Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) confirms the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism.
      Which is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (iv) fluids, oxygen, enoxaparin (treatment dose), rivaroxaban

      Correct Answer: iv fluids, oxygen, rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism postoperatively

      Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication that can occur after surgery and is associated with high mortality rates. The prompt diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial, and anticoagulant treatment is typically recommended. Patients can be started on apixaban or rivaroxaban at a therapeutic dose or a combination of LMWH and either dabigatran or warfarin until therapeutic levels are reached. In the case of warfarin, it is typically started concurrently with LMWH since it takes 48-72 hours for its anticoagulant properties to take effect.

      In addition to anticoagulant therapy, patients with pulmonary embolism may require iv fluids and high-flow oxygen if they are hypotensive and hypoxic. Enoxaparin is typically used as a treatment dose, but unfractionated iv heparin may be used as an alternative in patients with renal impairment.

      Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation in patients who have had pulmonary embolism, but it is not appropriate for immediate management since it is initially pro-thrombotic. Thrombolysis is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable, but it is generally avoided postoperatively due to an increased risk of bleeding.

      In summary, the management of pulmonary embolism postoperatively involves prompt diagnosis, anticoagulant therapy, and supportive measures such as iv fluids and oxygen. The choice of anticoagulant and duration of therapy will depend on the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He holds a senior trading job in an investment bank and has a history of recurrent admissions following cocaine intoxication. They are worried because he recently sent a memo to everyone on the trading floor suggesting that he is now the lead, he has the mental capacity to beat anyone to a higher profit and he should be chairman of the group. In fact, he has been performing poorly and has missed recent performance targets.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cocaine-induced delusional disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Psychological Effects of Cocaine Use

      Cocaine use can lead to a range of psychological and psychiatric problems, including delusional disorder. This disorder is characterized by grandiose ideas concerning one’s social standing or intellectual ability, which are far in excess of reality. Cocaine-induced hallucinations are also common, particularly of the auditory or tactile variety.

      While some may mistake these symptoms for schizophrenia or a manic episode of bipolar disorder, it is important to consider the individual’s history of cocaine use. Cocaine intoxication can cause anxiety, agitation, euphoria, enlarged pupils, and palpitations, while severe intoxication can lead to delirium, hyperactivity, hyperthermia, and psychosis. Cocaine withdrawal, on the other hand, can cause fatigue, agitation, vivid and unpleasant dreams, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation.

      Overall, it is crucial to understand the potential psychological effects of cocaine use and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - As a member of the surgical team, you come across a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • As a member of the surgical team, you come across a patient who is a 32-year-old male diagnosed with pigmented gallstones. In which condition is this frequently observed?

      Your Answer: Myelodysplastic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell anaemia

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease is linked to the formation of pigmented gallstones.

      The increased breakdown of red blood cells in sickle cell disease leads to the development of pigmented gallstones. These types of gallstones are mainly composed of bilirubin and are commonly seen in individuals with hemolytic anemia and liver cirrhosis. Fanconi anemia and myelodysplastic syndrome are both forms of anemia caused by a decrease in hemoglobin production, rather than increased hemolysis. On the other hand, pancreatitis and glomerulonephritis are not associated with the formation of pigmented gallstones.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - You are a high school student on a busy school day. You were...

    Correct

    • You are a high school student on a busy school day. You were up most of the night due to diarrhoea and vomiting (D&V). You feel you have food poisoning but know your classmates need you for group projects and presentations.
      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Ask HR to arrange cover for yourself then go home

      Explanation:

      Proper Actions to Take When a Doctor is Unwell

      When a doctor is unwell, it is important to take the appropriate actions to prevent infections from spreading and to ensure that patients are not put at risk. One of the most appropriate actions is to ask HR to arrange cover for yourself and then go home. This will help to address staff shortages, which are a common problem in the NHS.

      Leaving without telling anyone is irresponsible, as it can cause confusion and disrupt patient care. It is important to inform your team members, such as your Registrar, that you are not feeling well and need to go home. This will help to ensure that patient care is not compromised and that your colleagues are aware of the situation.

      Ignoring your symptoms and putting other patients at risk is also irresponsible. As a doctor, your health is important too, and it is crucial to take care of yourself in order to provide the best possible care for your patients. Always try to arrange cover when you are unable to cover your duties.

      Taking some Imodium and hoping that your symptoms will resolve is not a recommended course of action. It is important to go home and seek medical attention if necessary, in order to prevent the spread of infection and ensure that you are able to recover as quickly as possible. By taking the appropriate actions when you are unwell, you can help to ensure that patient care is not compromised and that you are able to provide the best possible care for your patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ebstein’s anomaly

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.

      Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.

      Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 75-year-old man is admitted with a urinary tract infection and subsequently develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is admitted with a urinary tract infection and subsequently develops confusion with poor concentration. He becomes restless and frightened, exhibiting abusive behavior towards staff and experiencing perceptual abnormalities. There is no significant psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Correct Answer: Acute confusional state

      Explanation:

      Acute Confusional State

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium, is a condition characterized by sudden confusion and disorientation. It is often triggered by an infection, especially in patients without prior history of psychiatric illness. This condition is common among hospitalized patients, with a prevalence rate of 20%.

      Patients with acute confusional state may exhibit symptoms such as irritability, reduced cognitive abilities, and disturbed perception, including hallucinations. They may also experience disorientation and have difficulty their surroundings.

      It is important to identify and manage acute confusional state promptly, as it can lead to complications such as falls, prolonged hospitalization, and increased mortality rates. Treatment may involve addressing the underlying cause, providing supportive care, and administering medications to manage symptoms.

      In summary, acute confusional state is a serious condition that can affect patients without prior history of psychiatric illness. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What investigation would be most useful in determining the level of pubertal development...

    Correct

    • What investigation would be most useful in determining the level of pubertal development in males?

      Your Answer: Left wrist x ray

      Explanation:

      The Use of Wrist X-Ray in Assessing Pubertal Development

      Wrist x-ray is a valuable tool in determining bone age and assessing pubertal development in children with short stature. By examining the epiphyseal plates, it is possible to compare bone age and chronological age, and identify any discrepancies that may be due to delayed puberty. In girls, an ultrasound of the uterus may also be used to estimate pubertal development based on endometrial thickness.

      While cortisol and growth hormone levels are not correlated with pubertal stage, testosterone levels can indicate whether a boy has entered puberty. However, they do not provide information on how far along in puberty he may be. It is important to note that hormone levels can be affected by various factors and may have diurnal variations.

      Overall, wrist x-ray and other assessments of pubertal development can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in monitoring the growth and development of children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
      Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?

      Your Answer: Evaporation

      Correct Answer: Radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration

      During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Huggerâ„¢. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of severe weakness, obtundation, and poor oral intake.

      One month ago, CT of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. He underwent cranial irradiation and received dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily.

      On examination he is unwell and disoriented. Temperature is 36.6°C, pulse is 100/min, respiratory rate is 28/min and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg supine. Chest examination and heart examination are normal. There is lower abdominal tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area. Diffuse muscle weakness is noted. No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.

      Investigations reveal:

      White cell count 19.5 ×109/L (4-11)

      Plasma glucose 40 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Urea 25 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 160 µmol/L (60-110)

      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (20-28)

      Urinalysis Glucose +++

      Protein ++

      Moderate bacteria seen

      Cultures of blood and urine are requested and he is treated with an intravenous sliding scale insulin.

      Which of the following IV fluids would you prescribe in conjunction with the insulin sliding scale for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Correct Answer: Normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Excessive Hyperglycaemia in a Dehydrated Patient

      This patient is experiencing excessive hyperglycaemia, which is contributing to her symptoms and is related to hyperosmolarity. However, her normal bicarbonate levels suggest that she does not have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS), but rather dehydration. Additionally, her marked hyperglycaemia is likely caused by the dexamethasone she is taking, which is causing insulin resistance.

      To manage her condition, the patient requires IV normal saline to address her dehydration, along with insulin to regulate her blood glucose levels. Once her blood glucose levels have decreased to 10 mmol/L, she can switch to IV dextrose. This approach will help to address her crystalloid requirements and manage her hyperglycaemia effectively.

      In summary, managing excessive hyperglycaemia in a dehydrated patient requires a careful approach that addresses both the underlying cause of the hyperglycaemia and the patient’s hydration status. By providing IV fluids and insulin as needed, healthcare providers can help to regulate the patient’s blood glucose levels and improve their overall condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
      What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?

      Your Answer: T2, N1, M0

      Correct Answer: T1, N1, M0

      Explanation:

      TNM Staging and Examples

      TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.

      Examples of TNM staging include:

      – T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
      – T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
      – T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset frank haematuria. He has been passing blood and clots during urination for the past three days. He denies any dysuria or abdominal pain. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft without tenderness or palpable masses in the abdomen or renal angles. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to determine the cause of his haematuria?

      Your Answer: CT-angiogram of the abdomen and pelvis

      Correct Answer: Flexible cystoscopy

      Explanation:

      When lower urinary tract tumour is suspected based on the patient’s history and risk factors, cystoscopy is the preferred diagnostic method for bladder cancer. If a bladder tumour is confirmed, a CT scan or PET-CT may be necessary to evaluate metastatic spread. While a CT-angiogram can identify a bleeding source, it is unlikely to be useful in this case as the patient is stable and a bleeding source is unlikely to be detected.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      20.4
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  • Question 51 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
      What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.8
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  • Question 52 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Nicotine gum

      Explanation:

      Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.9
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  • Question 53 - A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe artificial tears

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.5
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  • Question 54 - You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The trial excludes patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 ml/min and requires individuals with a diabetes duration of no more than three years.

      What is accurate regarding this clinical investigation?

      Your Answer: Patients who have had diabetes for 3.2 years would be appropriate for the study

      Correct Answer: All patients have to be given, understand and sign their informed consent

      Explanation:

      Informed Consent in Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of new investigational agents. Before a patient can participate in a clinical trial, they must be given informed consent. This process involves detailing the potential benefits, risks, and adverse events associated with the investigational therapy. The patient must sign the informed consent form before beginning the therapy.

      All clinical trials must adhere to the declaration of Helsinki, which outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects. Patients can only receive reasonable expenses for participating in a clinical trial, and not a premium. Clinical trial waivers are not acceptable, and entry into a study is based on both potential efficacy and safety.

      In summary, informed consent is a crucial aspect of clinical trials. It ensures that patients are fully aware of the potential risks and benefits of the investigational therapy before they begin treatment. Adherence to ethical principles and guidelines is also essential to ensure the safety and well-being of study participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A concerned father brings his 14-year-old daughter to see you because he has...

    Correct

    • A concerned father brings his 14-year-old daughter to see you because he has noticed in the last three months she is increasingly irritable, aggressive and withdrawn. She will refuse to go to school, misses her netball and guitar classes and does not go out with her friends. The symptoms seem to last for a couple of weeks and then abruptly resolve. They recommence a few days later. This has severely impacted on her education and function. The patient denies any physical symptoms, loss of weight or change in appetite. She has regular bowel movements. Her observations are normal, and examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms. PMS is a condition that affects the majority of women in reproductive age, with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolving with menstruation. The exact causes of PMS and PMDD are not yet identified, but hormonal effects on neurotransmitters and psychological and environmental factors may play a role.

      To diagnose PMS or PMDD, organic causes must be excluded through a full history, examination, and blood tests. A prospective diary of symptoms over 2-3 menstrual cycles can also aid in diagnosis. Symptoms must be present in the luteal phase and improve or resolve with menstruation.

      Differential diagnosis for PMDD includes depression, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism. Depression symptoms are continuous and not subject to regular cycling, while hypothyroidism symptoms are persistent and not cyclical. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms mimicking mania and psychosis.

      Mild PMS does not interfere with daily activities or social and professional life, while moderate and severe PMS can impact a woman’s ability to carry out activities. PMDD is a severe form of PMS characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.4
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  • Question 56 - A 4-week-old male infant is presented to the GP for his routine check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old male infant is presented to the GP for his routine check-up. During the examination, the GP observes that one side of his scrotum appears larger than the other. Upon palpation, a soft and smooth swelling is detected below and anterior to the testis, which transilluminates. The mother of the baby reports that it has been like that since birth, and there are no signs of infection or redness. The baby appears comfortable and healthy.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reassurance, and surgical repair if it does not resolve within 4-5 years

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, and surgical repair if it does not resolve within 1-2 years

      Explanation:

      A congenital hydrocele is a common condition in newborn male babies, which usually resolves within a few months. Therefore, reassurance and observation are typically the only necessary management. However, if the hydrocele does not resolve, elective surgery is required when the child is between 1-2 years old to prevent complications such as an incarcerated hernia. Urgent surgical repair is not necessary unless there is a suspicion of testicular torsion or a strangulated hernia. Therapeutic aspiration is not a suitable option for this condition, except in elderly men with hydrocele who are not fit for surgery or in cases of very large hydroceles. Reassurance and surgical repair after 4-5 years is also incorrect, as surgery is usually considered at 1-2 years of age.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about the potential risks of ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is concerned and wants advice on whether she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman regarding the use of ondansetron during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is some evidence of an increased rate of developing HELLP syndrome in the 3rd trimester

      Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is currently no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE antenatal care guidance, published in August 2021, acknowledges the increased risk of cleft lip or palate with ondansetron use, but notes that there is conflicting evidence regarding the drug’s potential to cause heart problems in babies. It is important to note that the risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies is not supported by evidence, and there is no established risk of severe congenital heart defects in newborns associated with ondansetron use.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.7
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  • Question 58 - A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with Marfan syndrome after visiting the optometrist due...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with Marfan syndrome after visiting the optometrist due to a left sided lens dislocation. The optometrist observed other characteristics indicative of the condition and referred her to the paediatric team for additional evaluation.

      What is the most accurate description of Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis commonly occurs

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis commonly occurs

      Explanation:

      Marfan Syndrome: A Connective Tissue Disorder with Variable Expression

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, caused by a mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene on chromosome 15. This results in reduced elasticity in connective tissue and excess growth factor release, leading to various clinical features such as tall and thin stature, long limbs and fingers, chest deformity, joint hypermobility, aortic aneurysm and regurgitation, lens dislocation, and facial characteristics such as a long narrow face and high-arched palate. Marfan syndrome is associated with a normal life expectancy, but patients have a reduced life expectancy due to cardiovascular complications. It is important to note that one in four cases are due to a de novo mutation, and the severity of the disease can vary depending on the specific mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      20.3
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  • Question 59 - A 49 year old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina and atrial fibrillation comes for a regular check-up. He is worried about experiencing erectile dysfunction and inquires about the use of sildenafil. Which of his medications is an absolute contraindication for its use?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be prescribed to patients taking nitrates or nicorandil due to contraindications. Nicorandil, which has both nitrate and potassium channel agonist properties, is particularly problematic as it poses a risk when combined with sildenafil.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting. She reports this is mostly in the morning but has affected her a lot, as she is struggling to attend work. She can manage oral fluids, but she struggles mostly with eating. She has tried avoiding certain foods and has followed some conservative advice she found on the National Health Service (NHS) website, including ginger, and they have not helped. Her examination is unremarkable. Her documented pre-pregnancy weight is 60 kg, and today she weighs 65 kg. The patient is keen to try some medication.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Management of Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy: Medications and Considerations

      Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are common and can range from mild to severe. Conservative measures such as dietary changes and ginger can be effective for mild symptoms, but oral anti-emetics are recommended for more severe cases. First-line medications include promethazine, cyclizine, and phenothiazines. If these fail, second-line medications such as ondansetron and metoclopramide may be prescribed. Severe cases may require hospital admission, parenteral anti-emetics, and fluid resuscitation. Thiamine is given to all women admitted with severe vomiting. Steroid treatments such as hydrocortisone should be reserved for specialist use. It is important to monitor for side-effects and consider referral to secondary care if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient appears disinterested and unresponsive when discussing recent and upcoming events in his life, such as his upcoming trip to Hawaii and his recent separation from his spouse.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Depersonalisation

      Correct Answer: Blunting of affect

      Explanation:

      Emotional and Cognitive Symptoms in Mental Health

      Blunting of affect is a condition where an individual experiences a loss of normal emotional expression towards events. This can be observed in people with schizophrenia, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Anhedonia, on the other hand, is the inability to derive pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Depersonalisation is a feeling of detachment from oneself, where an individual may feel like they are not real. Labile affect is characterized by sudden and inappropriate changes in emotional expression. Lastly, thought blocking is a sudden interruption in the flow of thought.

      These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with mental health conditions and can significantly impact their daily lives. It is important to recognize and address these symptoms to provide appropriate treatment and support. By these symptoms, mental health professionals can better assess and diagnose their patients, leading to more effective treatment plans. Additionally, individuals experiencing these symptoms can seek help and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.5
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  • Question 62 - A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor and expresses concern about her ability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor and expresses concern about her ability to manage her finances in the future. She wishes for her daughter to have the authority to make financial decisions on her behalf and knows that she must complete a form to make this possible.
      What organization is responsible for registering these forms?

      Your Answer: Public Health England

      Correct Answer: Office of the Public Guardian

      Explanation:

      Government Agencies and Their Roles in Supporting Vulnerable People

      The UK government has several agencies that work to support vulnerable people in different ways. One of these agencies is the Office of the Public Guardian, which helps individuals who lack capacity to make decisions about their health and finances. All lasting power of attorneys must be registered with this agency.

      Another agency is the Official Solicitor and Public Trustee, which collaborates with the Ministry of Justice to provide services to vulnerable people within the justice system. Public Health England is responsible for responding to public health emergencies and advising the government, NHS, and public.

      The National Information Board brings together information and technology from the NHS, public health, social care, and local government. Lastly, the Pensions Regulator works with employers, pension specialists, and business advisers to provide guidance on work-based pension schemes. These agencies play a crucial role in supporting vulnerable people and ensuring their rights are protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 63 - A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress incontinence. She is found to have a cystocoele. The woman had four children, all vaginal deliveries. She also suffers from osteoarthritis and hypertension. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32 and she smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
      What would your first line treatment be for this woman?

      Your Answer: Advise smoking cessation, weight loss and pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Symptomatic Cystocoele: Lifestyle Modifications, Medications, and Surgeries

      Symptomatic cystocoele can be treated through various options, depending on the severity of the condition. The first line of treatment focuses on lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. Topical oestrogen may also be prescribed to post- or perimenopausal women suffering from vaginal dryness, urinary incontinence, recurrent urinary tract infections, or superficial dyspareunia. Inserting a ring pessary is the second line of treatment, which needs to be changed every six months and puts the patient at risk of ulceration. Per vaginal surgery is the third line of treatment, which is only possible if the cystocoele is small and puts the patient at risk of fibroids and adhesions. Hysterectomy is not recommended as it increases the risk of cystocoele due to the severance of the uterine ligaments and reduction in support following removal of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.3
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  • Question 64 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 65 - A 67-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a rash. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a rash. He has been experiencing fever and fatigue for three days, but within the last 12 hours, a rash has developed. He is extremely anxious and in severe pain. The rash is primarily on his face and torso, consisting of a combination of target lesions and blisters. His tongue and lips show significant mucosal desquamation. You identify this as a severe and uncommon side effect of one of his medications.
      What medication is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Candesartan

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Adverse Reactions of Common Medications

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Common Drug Triggers
      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) is a rare but severe condition that affects 1-2 million people each year. It is more common in patients with HIV and can be triggered by antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, anticonvulsants, and allopurinol. Symptoms include a painful rash on the trunk, face, and limbs, with lesions that can be macules, targets, or blisters. Mucosal involvement is severe, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, and genital area. Mortality rates range from 10-50%, making it crucial to stop the causative drug immediately and provide supportive treatment.

      Candesartan, Diltiazem, Fluoxetine, and Prednisolone: Common Side Effects
      Candesartan can rarely cause a rash, but more common side effects include hypotension, hyperkalaemia, and angioedema. Diltiazem can cause bradycardia, palpitations, and dizziness, and may rarely cause rashes such as erythema multiforme and exfoliative dermatitis. Fluoxetine can rarely cause toxic epidermal necrolysis, but more common side effects are gastrointestinal and hypersensitivity reactions, including rash, urticarial, and angioedema. High doses of prednisolone can cause Cushing syndrome, with moon face, striae, and acne, as well as skin effects such as urticaria, hyperhidrosis, skin atrophy, bruising, and telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.9
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  • Question 66 - A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she feels depressed. She describes feeling homesick and is so sad that it is interfering with her ability to focus, work or make new friends. Her sleep, appetite and energy have been unaffected. She denies suicidal ideation or feelings of guilt. She thought it would have gotten better by now, but she said it has already been 2 months since she left home and she is still unhappy. She is worried that she is experiencing major depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dysthymia

      Correct Answer: Adjustment disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Adjustment Disorder from Other Mood Disorders

      Adjustment disorder is a type of mood disorder that occurs in response to a major stressor. It is characterized by symptoms of depression or anxiety that present within three months of the stressor and last for less than six months. In contrast, major depressive disorder requires two episodes of major depression with a symptom-free interval, all in two months. Dysthymia, on the other hand, requires a depressive mood for at least two years. Bipolar disorder is characterized by manic symptoms, which the patient in question does not exhibit. Acute stress disorder is associated with psychotic symptoms that last less than one month from an identifiable stressor. Therefore, it is important to differentiate adjustment disorder from other mood disorders to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.3
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  • Question 67 - Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?

      Your Answer: Renin

      Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s Disease

      Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.8
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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and swollen right knee. An x-ray reveals no fracture but significant chondrocalcinosis. Assuming the diagnosis is pseudogout, what is the most probable finding in the joint fluid?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is characterized by rhomboid-shaped crystals that exhibit weakly positive birefringence.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      41.9
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  • Question 69 - A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been progressively worsening for the past 10 months. Despite this, he is otherwise healthy. An x-ray reveals a radiolucency of the subarticular region suggestive of osteolysis, with some areas of patchy sclerosis. Blood tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and prostate-specific antigen. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Referral to a urologist

      Correct Answer: IV bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the recommended treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, which is indicated by an elevated ALP level and typical x-ray findings in this patient. The PSA level of 3.4 ng/ml is within the normal range for a man of his age and does not suggest the presence of prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is in a committed relationship. She has been diagnosed with partial epilepsy and takes carbamazepine regularly. Additionally, she has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Apart from this, her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable contraception method for her at present?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      When choosing a contraceptive method, individual preferences and any cautions or contraindications must be taken into account. In this case, the priority is to find a method that won’t be affected by carbamazepine’s enzyme-inducing effect, such as the intrauterine system. While the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) could help with heavy bleeding, its failure rate would be high due to enzyme induction. Nexplanon may cause heavy bleeding and its low progesterone dose would also be affected by enzyme induction. Depo-Provera is an option, but prolonged use in young individuals could lead to reduced bone density. The Mirena intrauterine system would be effective in reducing heavy bleeding and providing reliable contraception alongside the anti-epileptic medication.

      Contraception for Women with Epilepsy

      Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.

      To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.

      For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.1
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  • Question 71 - A 19-year-old male is admitted after intentionally consuming 50 grams of paracetamol. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male is admitted after intentionally consuming 50 grams of paracetamol. After 24 hours, he is evaluated for a possible liver transplant. What factor would be the strongest indicator for the need of a liver transplant?

      Your Answer: CRP 306

      Correct Answer: Arterial pH 7.25

      Explanation:

      In cases of paracetamol overdose, liver transplantation may be considered if the arterial pH remains below 7.3 for more than 24 hours after ingestion. Other factors such as creatinine levels, encephalopathy grade, and INR must also be significantly abnormal to warrant transplantation.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.9
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  • Question 72 - A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of sudden onset right-sided groin pain and inability to bear weight after a fall. On examination, he has a decreased range of motion and an antalgic gait. His heart rate is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, BMI is 31 kg/m², and he is afebrile. What is the most probable finding on examination for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reduced external rotation of the leg in flexion

      Correct Answer: Reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) often results in a loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. This is likely the case for a boy with obesity aged between 10-15 years who is experiencing acute-onset right-sided groin pain and inability to weight bear following potential trauma. Attempting to internally rotate the leg while the hip is flexed would be limited in SCFE due to the anterior and external rotation of the femoral metaphysis. Therefore, reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion is the correct option. Reduced external rotation of the leg in extension, reduced external rotation of the leg in flexion, and reduced internal rotation of the leg in extension are all incorrect options as they do not align with the typical presentation of SCFE.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.3
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  • Question 73 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the eye casualty department complaining of a gradual decline in her vision over the past 8 years. She reports difficulty reading books due to this issue. Upon examination, a central visual impairment is observed, and the patient displays metamorphopsia when using an Amsler grid. Fundoscopy reveals small yellow deposits in the macula. What is the most suitable medical treatment for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Photodynamic therapy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment cannot cure dry AMD. However, administering high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can help slow down the progression of visual impairment.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
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  • Question 74 - A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant comes to her GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant comes to her GP with concerns of exposure to an infectious disease. Her neighbor's son has a rash and a high temperature. She has no medical history and is unsure if she had chickenpox in childhood. What is the initial step to take?

      Your Answer: Immediate administration of varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Check varicella antibodies

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, the first step is to check if she has varicella antibodies. If she is unsure whether she has had chickenpox in the past, the presence or absence of antibodies will determine the next course of action.

      If a pregnant woman is over 20 weeks gestation and does not have varicella antibodies, she should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin or oral acyclovir within 7-14 days of exposure. Delaying the administration of oral acyclovir can reduce the risk of developing chickenpox.

      Oral acyclovir is also recommended if a pregnant woman over 20 weeks gestation develops chickenpox. However, caution should be exercised if the patient is under 20 weeks gestation and does not have any symptoms of chickenpox.

      The varicella-zoster vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women as it is a live attenuated vaccine that can cross the placenta and cause foetal varicella syndrome. It can be given to women who have not had chickenpox and are not immune to antibody testing, but they should avoid getting pregnant for three months after receiving the vaccine.

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin is recommended for pregnant women who are not immune to varicella on antibody testing and can receive it within 10 days of exposure. However, it provides short-lived protection, so patients should be advised to get the varicella-zoster vaccine after their pregnancy.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.9
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  • Question 75 - A 40-year-old man presents with a 4-week history of progressive pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a 4-week history of progressive pain in his left calf. The pain worsens with activity, persists at rest, but improves when he hangs his legs over the bedside. He has a medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus.

      Upon examination, the left calf appears paler than the right, and pulses are difficult to palpate. An ulcer is observed on the dorsum aspect of the left foot, while the right calf is unaffected. Magnetic resonance angiography reveals an 8 cm stenotic lesion in the femoral artery.

      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Endovascular revascularization

      Explanation:

      For patients with peripheral arterial disease and critical limb ischaemia, endovascular revascularization is the preferred treatment option, especially for those with short segment stenosis. In the case presented, the patient’s calf pain, worsened by exertion and persistent at rest, along with rest pain in the foot for more than two weeks and ulceration, confirms the diagnosis of critical limb ischaemia. Endovascular revascularization, such as percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent insertion, is appropriate for stenotic lesions less than 10 cm, as in this case. Surgical options, such as femoral artery bypass surgery or femoral endarterectomy, are preferred for long segment lesions (>10 cm). IV unfractionated heparin is not definitive management for critical limb ischaemia but may be used before surgery to prevent thrombus propagation in acute limb-threatening ischaemia.

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.

      For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      59.4
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  • Question 76 - A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
      What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?

      Your Answer: Metastatic pancreatic cancer

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent

      Introduction:
      A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.

      Possible Causes:
      1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.

      2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.

      3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.

      4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.

      5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.

      Conclusion:
      In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.6
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  • Question 77 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Thoracic level 11 on the left side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      6.6
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  • Question 78 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody

      Correct Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases

      Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:

      1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.

      2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.

      3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.

      4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.

      5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.

      Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      26.5
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  • Question 79 - Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical Council, (GMC), which of the following statements is true if we consider the latest age criteria?

      Your Answer: The procedure must be discussed with the patient’s GP, irrespective of whether the patient gives their consent for you to do so

      Correct Answer: The person undertaking the procedure must not delegate the responsibility of discussing it with the patient and seeking their consent

      Explanation:

      Understanding GMC Guidelines for Cosmetic Procedures

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidelines for cosmetic procedures that must be followed by all medical professionals. It is important to understand these guidelines, even as a junior doctor, as you may be asked to be involved in cosmetic procedures.

      Firstly, the person performing the procedure must be the one to discuss it with the patient and obtain their consent. Consent must be obtained by someone with the experience to perform the procedure and answer any questions the patient may have. For cosmetic procedures, the doctor performing the procedure must seek consent themselves.

      While cosmetic procedures can be performed on patients under 18 years old, certain conditions must be met. The procedure must be in the best interest of the child, the environment must be suitable for young people, and advertising must not target children directly.

      It is important to discuss the procedure with the patient’s GP, but only with the patient’s consent. If the patient does not want their GP involved, this must be recorded in the notes and the surgeon should consider whether the procedure should still go ahead.

      Cosmetic services must not be provided as a prize, according to the GMC guidelines. Injectable cosmetic medicines, such as Botox, cannot be prescribed by telephone. A physical examination of the patient must be carried out before prescribing these medicines.

      In conclusion, understanding the GMC guidelines for cosmetic procedures is crucial for all medical professionals. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients undergoing cosmetic procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      6.5
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  • Question 80 - A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20.4
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  • Question 81 - A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.

      The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.

      What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      14.7
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  • Question 82 - A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign body sensation in his left eye. He reports experiencing pain and sensitivity to light on the left side. When asked about eye protection, he states that he wears it 99% of the time. Upon examination, you notice crusty, gold-colored lesions on his face. Using a slit lamp and fluorescein eye stain, you identify a dendritic ulcer in his left eye.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal foreign body

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis

      Explanation:

      A dendritic ulcer seen on fluorescein eye stain is indicative of herpes simplex keratitis, which is the likely diagnosis in this case. While mechanics may be at a higher risk for photokeratitis, it typically does not cause a foreign body sensation. While the other options are possible, the presence of a dendritic ulcer is a key diagnostic feature.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 58-year-old woman with a long history of bipolar disorder visits the mental...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with a long history of bipolar disorder visits the mental health clinic. She reports experiencing an uncomfortable sensation of inner restlessness for several months, and her husband observes that she frequently moves her arms and legs.
      What symptom is the woman experiencing?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Akathisia is characterized by an inner sense of restlessness and an inability to remain still. It is commonly observed in individuals with a prolonged history of anti-psychotic medication use, often due to schizophrenia. Symptoms of acute dystonia typically involve spasms of facial muscles, while parkinsonism may manifest as changes in gait and resting tremors. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by abnormal involuntary movements, such as lip-licking. Although rare in individuals who have been on anti-psychotics for an extended period, neuroleptic malignant syndrome may present with hyperthermia and muscle rigidity.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been under your care for the past nine years. During this time, her HbA1c levels have fluctuated between 64 mmol/mol and 75 mmol/mol (20-42).
      Today, her blood pressure reads 130/84 mmHg. She has also noticed that her blood glucose levels at home have been fluctuating more than usual over the past three months. Additionally, she reports experiencing nausea after eating and requiring less food than usual to feel full.
      Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Urea: 8.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 112 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Sodium: 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (20-28)
      - HbA1c: 42 mmol/mol (20-42)
      - Urinalysis: Protein+
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Adrenal insufficiency

      Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying

      People with a long history of diabetes may experience nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest reduced gastric emptying, which is often associated with autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention to manage the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of numbness and tingling in both hands, particularly at night. Upon examination, there is no weakness in finger flexion, extension, or abduction, but there is weakened pincer grip. Bilateral mild wasting of the thenar eminence is observed, and both Tinel's and Phalen's signs are positive in both hands. Based on her medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to have predisposed her to this condition?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Explanation:

      Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome is frequently caused by rheumatoid arthritis, which is a common condition. This woman displays symptoms of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, which is an uncommon occurrence and typically results from conditions that enlarge the interstitial space with soft tissue growth or fluid. Although all of these conditions are linked to bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis is the most probable cause in a 33-year-old. Acromegaly is more likely to cause carpal tunnel syndrome after the age of 50, and this association is well-known and frequently tested in exams.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 30-year-old is admitted to A&E with seizures. He is advised not to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old is admitted to A&E with seizures. He is advised not to drive. You spot him in the parking lot of a nearby grocery store, having just parked the car he was driving. He has an upcoming clinic appointment in a week.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop him in the car park and remind him that he shouldn't be driving

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When a Patient Shouldn’t Be Driving

      As a healthcare professional, it is important to ensure the safety of both your patients and the public. If you witness a patient who shouldn’t be driving, there are several appropriate actions you can take.

      Stopping the patient in the car park and reminding them that they shouldn’t be driving is the most appropriate action. This shows that you have a duty of care and are taking responsibility for the safety of the public. It is not ideal, but approaching the patient and asking why they are driving is the most sensible option.

      Reporting the patient to the DVLA is also an option if they persist in driving. However, it is the patient’s responsibility to inform the DVLA of any medical conditions that may affect their ability to drive.

      Calling the police as a first action is drastic and should only be considered if the patient is putting themselves or others in immediate danger.

      Waiting until you are next at work to address the issue may be too late. It is important to deal with the matter straight away to prevent any potential harm.

      Ignoring what you have seen is unprofessional and puts the public at risk. It is important to take action and ensure the safety of everyone involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden swelling of her ankles within the past 3 days. She is currently 30+4 weeks pregnant, with a history of diabetes mellitus type II that is managed through lifestyle changes. During the examination, it was observed that the fundal height is measuring small for her gestational age. Consequently, an ultrasound scan was ordered, which revealed oligohydramnios. What is the most probable cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anencephaly

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios can be caused by pre-eclampsia, which leads to inadequate blood flow to the placenta. Polyhydramnios, on the other hand, is associated with anencephaly, diabetes mellitus, twin pregnancies, and oesophageal atresia. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is usually the cause of polyhydramnios in twin pregnancies. Foetal hyperglycaemia in diabetic mothers leads to foetal polyuria. In cases of oesophageal atresia and anencephaly, the foetus is unable to swallow the amniotic fluid.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      54.9
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  • Question 88 - A 29-year-old female presents to the surgical intake with abdominal pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents to the surgical intake with abdominal pain and a five day history of vomiting.

      Over the last three months she has also been aware of a 6 kg weight loss.

      On examination, she is pale, has a temperature of 38.5°C, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and pulse rate of 130 in sinus rhythm. The chest is clear on auscultation but she has a diffusely tender abdomen without guarding. Her BM reading is 2.5.

      Initial biochemistry is as follows:

      Sodium 124 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 6.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 78 µmol/L (60-110)

      Glucose 2.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal migraine

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Hypoadrenal Crisis and Addison’s Disease

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypoadrenal crisis, including abdominal pain, vomiting, shock, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. In the UK, this is typically caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands, known as Addison’s disease. Other less common causes include TB, HIV, adrenal hemorrhage, or anterior pituitary disease. Patients with Addison’s disease often experience weight loss, abdominal pain, lethargy, and nausea/vomiting. Additionally, they may develop oral pigmentation due to excess ACTH and other autoimmune diseases such as thyroid disease and vitiligo.

      In cases like this, emergency fluid resuscitation, steroid administration, and a thorough search for underlying infections are necessary. It is important to measure cortisol levels before administering steroids. None of the other potential causes explain the patient’s biochemical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer: Blanching rash of the skin

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Typical absence seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.

      Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.

      To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of muscle weakness and twitching throughout her body. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing occasional palpitations, which she had attributed to anxiety and a lack of appetite. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and chronic diarrhea. What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected in her blood test results?

      Your Answer: Low haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Low magnesium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Crohn’s Disease

      In patients with Crohn’s disease, abnormal lab results can provide valuable information about their condition. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, twitching, irritability, and palpitations. The following lab results were obtained: low magnesium, low haemoglobin, low vitamin D, raised bilirubin, and raised creatinine.

      Low magnesium levels are common in patients with malabsorption or chronic diarrhoea, which is seen in this patient. Although unlikely to be the cause of palpitations, it is important to check magnesium levels in the workup of palpitations. Low haemoglobin levels may occur in patients with Crohn’s disease, but it would not cause the collection of symptoms described here. Low vitamin D is likely to present with generalised muscle and/or bone aches and pains and fatigue, but not muscle twitching. Raised bilirubin levels would be likely to present with jaundice, a change in the colour of urine and/or stool, abdominal pain or nausea. Patients with renal impairment may be asymptomatic or can present with fatigue, nausea, itching, leg swelling, and shortness of breath, but not weakness or twitching. Given the history of Crohn’s disease and chronic diarrhoea, an abnormality linked to malabsorption is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe bloody diarrhoea on and off for the past three months. After undergoing a barium enema, it was discovered that he has multiple ulcers and signs of inflammation that extend from his rectum to the mid transverse colon. A colonoscopy was performed and biopsies were taken from various sites, revealing acute and chronic inflammation that is limited to the mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease are both types of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause bloody diarrhoea. However, UC is more likely to result in the passage of blood. The onset of UC usually begins in the distal part of the colon and progresses towards the proximal end. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can skip areas, resulting in disease occurring at different sites.

      Histologically, Crohn’s disease affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall, while UC typically only affects the mucosa. This means that Crohn’s disease can cause more severe damage to the bowel wall and lead to complications such as strictures and fistulas. In contrast, UC is more likely to cause inflammation and ulceration of the mucosa, which can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

      In summary, while both UC and Crohn’s disease can cause similar symptoms, there are important differences in their presentation and histological features. these differences is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Eye shield

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:

      Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.

      Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.

      Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      possible left upper lobe fibrosis
      Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Invasive aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

      A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which one of the following statements regarding lidocaine is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding lidocaine is accurate?

      Your Answer: The anaesthetic effect usual wears off after 15-20 minutes

      Correct Answer: Preparations mixed with adrenaline should not be used for minor surgery involving the finger

      Explanation:

      Minor Surgery: Local Anaesthetic and Suture Material

      Minor surgery often requires the use of local anaesthetic (LA) to numb the area being operated on. Lidocaine is the most commonly used LA due to its fast-acting properties and short duration of anaesthesia. The maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with the recommended dose being 200mg (or 500 mg if mixed with adrenaline) for a 66 kg patient. This equates to 20 ml of 1% solution or 10 ml of 2% solution. Lidocaine mixed with adrenaline can also help reduce blood loss by constricting blood vessels, but should not be used near extremities to avoid the risk of ischaemia.

      Suture material is also an important consideration in minor surgery. Non-absorbable sutures, such as silk, Prolene, and Ethilon, need to be removed after 7-14 days depending on the location of the wound. Absorbable sutures, such as Vicryl, Dexon, and PDS, dissolve on their own after 7-10 days. The removal times for non-absorbable sutures vary depending on the area of the body, with the face requiring removal after 3-5 days, the scalp, limbs, and chest after 7-10 days, and the hand, foot, and back after 10-14 days. Proper use of LA and suture material can help ensure a successful and safe minor surgery procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Drug abuse

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.

      Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging

      Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.

      Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?

      Your Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy,...

    Incorrect

    • You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy, during the delivery there was a large amount of meconium. On observation of the baby just after the birth, what signs would indicate the need for the neonatal team to evaluate the baby?

      Your Answer: Heart rate of 145/min

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 75/minute

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39.7
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  • Question 99 - A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days...

    Incorrect

    • A seventy-one-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is recovering on the ward 6 days following a right hemi-colectomy for a tumour in the ascending colon. He complains to the nurse looking after him that he has developed pain in his abdomen. The pain is diffuse and came on suddenly but has gradually been getting worse since onset. He ranks it an 8/10. He has not opened his bowels or passed flatus since the procedure.

      On examination:

      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg; Heart rate: 100/minute; Respiratory rate: 18/minute; Temperature: 38.5 ºC; Oxygen saturations: 97%.

      Abdominal exam: abdomen is distended. Diffusely tender upon palpation and evidence of guarding throughout. No organomegaly. No pulsatile masses. Kidneys are non-ballotable. No shifting dullness. Absent bowel sounds.

      There is feculent matter in the abdominal wound drain.

      What is the most appropriate imaging modality to investigate this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT

      Explanation:

      A possible complication after an elective left hemi-colectomy is an anastomotic leak, which typically occurs 5-7 days after the procedure. This patient has rheumatoid arthritis and may be taking steroids and other anti-rheumatic drugs, which increases the risk of developing an anastomotic leak. Abdominal pain and fever are common signs of this condition, but they are not specific, so it is important to rule out an anastomotic leak promptly to avoid further complications. The best imaging modality for diagnosing an anastomotic leak is an abdominal CT scan. Abdominal X-rays are not sufficient for visualizing soft tissues, and ileus alone is not enough to confirm the diagnosis. Abdominal ultrasound is inferior to CT scans, and pelvic ultrasound is unlikely to provide adequate visualization. Colonoscopy is not recommended in this case, as the patient is peritonitic and suspected of having a leak.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red patches with silvery scales on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees. He has been experiencing these skin lesions intermittently for the past 3 years. The lesions tend to improve during the summer months, worsen during times of stress, and reappear at the site of trauma, particularly where he scratches. A skin biopsy specimen reveals epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils present within the epidermis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Plaque psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by a rash with typical histology and location. The Koebner phenomenon, where lesions occur at sites of trauma, is a common feature of psoriasis. Treatment involves exposure to ultraviolet light, tar-based treatments, and immunosuppressant drugs. Pruritus is not always present.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis presents as itchy, ill-defined erythema and greasy scaling on the scalp, nasolabial folds, or post-auricular skin in adults and adolescents.

      Lichen planus is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.

      Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by itchy, red rashes often found in the flexor areas of joints.

      Tinea corporis is a ringworm infection characterized by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematosus, and scaly, with papules, vesicles, and pustules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 67-year-old man attends for his first abdominal aortic aneurysm screening. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man attends for his first abdominal aortic aneurysm screening. He is found to have an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.3 cm. He is seen routinely by a regional vascular centre that made the decision not to perform an elective repair. He has been advised to stop smoking, reduce his blood pressure through antihypertensive medications and to attend surveillance appointments.
      How often should the patient receive surveillance abdominal ultrasounds?

      Your Answer: Every 24 months

      Correct Answer: Every three months

      Explanation:

      Surveillance Frequency for Abdominal Aneurysms

      Abdominal aneurysms require regular surveillance to monitor their growth and determine if intervention is necessary. The frequency of surveillance depends on the size of the aneurysm.

      For an aneurysm between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, surveillance should be offered every three months. If the aneurysm is 3.0–4.4 cm, aortic ultrasound should be performed every twelve months. Aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter are invariably repaired.

      Aneurysms are repaired if they are symptomatic, asymptomatic and 5.5 cm or larger, or larger than 4.0 cm and growing by more than 1.0 cm in the preceding 12 months.

      It is important to follow the recommended surveillance frequency to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a history of a painful, erythematosus breast for the past 24 hours.

      Her blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, her heart rate is 72 beats per minute and her temperature is 37.2 degrees celsius. On examination her left breast is tender and erythematosus and warm to touch. There is no palpable lump and no visible fissure. You take a sample of breast milk to send for culture.

      What is the most appropriate first line management?

      Your Answer: Refer to hospital for review by the surgical team

      Correct Answer: Advise to continue breastfeeding and use simple analgesia and warm compresses

      Explanation:

      When managing mastitis in breastfeeding women, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding while using simple analgesia and warm compresses. If breastfeeding is too painful, expressing milk by hand or using a pump is advised to prevent milk stasis, which is often the cause of lactational mastitis. According to NICE clinical knowledge summaries (CKS), oral antibiotics are only necessary if there is an infected nipple fissure, symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or breast milk culture is positive. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for 10-14 days, while erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used for penicillin-allergic patients. Referral to a surgical team in the hospital is only necessary if a breast abscess is suspected, which is unlikely if there is no palpable lump in the breast.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37.3
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  • Question 103 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular systolic function presents with recent onset of increasing breathlessness, and worsening peripheral oedema and lethargy. He is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol alongside occasional paracetamol.
      What is the most appropriate long-term management?

      Your Answer: Addition of furosemide

      Correct Answer: Addition of spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For the management of heart failure, first line options include ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. In this case, the patient was already on a beta-blocker and an ACE inhibitor which had been effective. The addition of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone would be the best option as it prevents fluid retention and reduces pressure on the heart. Ivabradine is a specialist intervention that should only be considered after trying all other recommended options. Addition of furosemide would only provide symptomatic relief. Insertion of an implantable cardiac defibrillator device is a late-stage intervention. Encouraging regular exercise and a healthy diet is important but does not directly address the patient’s clinical deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis

      The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.

      Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.4
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  • Question 105 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with ongoing vaginal bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with ongoing vaginal bleeding for the past six to eight weeks. She had undergone menopause a decade ago and has been on tamoxifen since being diagnosed with breast cancer four years ago. What is the most concerning diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen: A Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator for Breast Cancer

      Tamoxifen is a medication that selectively modulates estrogen receptors and has been found to reduce the risk of breast cancer recurrence in women. Although it is associated with potential adverse effects such as increased risk of endometrial cancer, raised triglycerides, and venous thromboembolism, the benefits of tamoxifen in reducing the risk of breast cancer recurrence outweigh these risks. There is no evidence of increased risk for other types of tumors. However, patients who have been treated with tamoxifen and report abnormal bleeding should be investigated to rule out the possibility of an endometrial neoplasm. Overall, tamoxifen is a valuable medication for reducing the risk of breast cancer recurrence in women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

      Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.

      Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.

      Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.8
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  • Question 107 - A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fistula steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.

      Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.

      Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      9.6
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  • Question 108 - A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis

      Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      42.1
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  • Question 109 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected bipolar disorder. She has a 4-month history of manic episodes and has been experiencing delusions of grandeur. She started lithium 3 weeks ago. She has no other medical conditions and takes no other medications. Today, staff on the ward raised concerns due to her abnormal behaviour. She was found in the common room dancing and singing loudly, despite it being late at night. It is reported that she has been like this for the last hour. Her observations are normal. She has not responded to attempts to engage her in conversation or to calm her down. What is the most appropriate description of her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the woman’s presentation, who is suspected to have schizophrenia and has been sitting in an uncomfortable position for the last 2 hours, is catatonia. Catatonia is a condition where voluntary movement is stopped or the person stays in an unusual position. It is believed to occur due to abnormalities in the balance of neurotransmitter systems, particularly dopamine, and is commonly associated with certain types of schizophrenia. Treatment for catatonia includes benzodiazepines and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Extrapyramidal side effects, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and serotonin syndrome are not the correct answers for this scenario. Extrapyramidal side effects can occur with antipsychotic medications but would not present with the withdrawn status described. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications and presents with different symptoms than catatonia. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excess serotonin in the body and is not associated with the patient’s medication or presentation.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.3
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  • Question 110 - A 35-year-old female patient reports a constant 'funny-bone' feeling in her left elbow,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient reports a constant 'funny-bone' feeling in her left elbow, along with tingling in the pinky and ring fingers. The symptoms intensify when the elbow is flexed for extended periods. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.6
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  • Question 111 - A worried father brings his 12-month-old son to the GP because he is...

    Incorrect

    • A worried father brings his 12-month-old son to the GP because he is worried about his development.

      You conduct a developmental evaluation.

      What results in the child would be worrisome?

      Your Answer: An expressive vocabulary of three words (daddy, mummy, drink)

      Correct Answer: Picks up objects with a pincer grip, with a preference for the right hand

      Explanation:

      Hand preference before the age of 12 months may indicate a potential issue such as cerebral palsy. It is not typical for a child to strongly favor one hand over the other at this age. However, it is encouraging for a 10-month-old to have a vocabulary of at least three words. It is normal for children to play alone at this age and they are not expected to share toys until they are around 3 years old. It is also normal for children to enjoy casting bricks until they are 18 months old, but if this behavior continues beyond that age, it may be a cause for concern. Finally, independent walking should develop between 9 and 18 months, with 18 months being the age at which parents may want to seek medical advice if their child is not yet walking independently.

      Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.

      It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.3
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  • Question 112 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left eye pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left eye pain for the third time. She reports experiencing blurred vision and a sensation of something being stuck in her eye each time. She typically wears contact lenses and has accidentally scratched her eye multiple times in the past.
      Investigations reveal an epithelial defect with surrounding corneal edema on slit lamp examination, as well as an area of increased uptake on fluorescein examination. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Corneal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Corneal Ulcers in Contact Lens Wearers

      Corneal ulcers are a common complication in contact lens wearers, caused by bacteria adhering to the lens surface and infecting the cornea. Symptoms include pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and most importantly, blurred vision. Treatment involves avoiding contact lenses for a few days, re-education on proper application, and topical antibiotics.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as bacterial conjunctivitis, traumatic corneal abrasion, Fuchs’ endothelial dystrophy, and keratitis sicca, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and examination findings. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat corneal ulcers in contact lens wearers to prevent further complications and vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a leathery lesion on his chest. It is dry and insensate with a waxy appearance. It does not blanch.
      How would you describe this burn?

      Your Answer: Superficial burn (first-degree burn)

      Correct Answer: Full-thickness burn (third-degree burn)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Burn Classification: From Superficial to Full-Thickness Burns

      Burns can be classified based on their depth and severity. While the general public may be familiar with the ‘degree’ classification, plastic surgeons prefer to use the ‘thickness’ classification. Superficial burns, also known as first-degree burns, only affect the epidermis and are painful and red. Partial-thickness burns, or second-degree burns, penetrate deeper into the dermis layer and are more painful and prone to infection. Full-thickness burns, or third-degree burns, are painless and do not blanch due to damage to the nerves and microvasculature. The skin can be charred and leathery, with scarring likely in the long term. Fourth-degree burns involve damage to not only the skin but also the underlying muscles, tendons, or ligaments. Fifth-degree burns, which are rare and often only diagnosed at autopsy, penetrate down to the bone. It is important to understand the different classifications of burns to properly evaluate and treat them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with a recent history of dyspareunia, occasional post-coital spotting and lower abdominal pain since having sexual intercourse with a new partner without using barrier methods. Her menstrual cycle is regular, and a pregnancy test is negative.
      A pelvic examination reveals a blood stained purulent discharge, and cervical excitation is elicited on bimanual examination. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and temperature 37.3 °C. Cervical and high-vaginal swabs are sent for analysis.
      The patient reports she had two previous episodes of gonorrhoeal infection.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe 400 mg ofloxacin twice daily and 400 mg metronidazole twice daily for 14 days

      Correct Answer: 1 g ceftriaxone IM (single dose), followed by metronidazole 400 mg orally twice daily and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious condition resulting from an ascending sexually transmitted infection, commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Patients with PID may present with symptoms such as chronic lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, irregular bleeding, dysmenorrhoea, and purulent vaginal discharge. It is important to identify and treat PID promptly, as it can lead to complications such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and pelvic adhesion formation.

      The management of PID depends on the severity of the presentation. Patients who are haemodynamically stable can be treated in the primary care setting with a single dose of ceftriaxone IM, followed by metronidazole and doxycycline for 14 days. However, patients with pyrexia, nausea and vomiting, or suspicion of a tubo-ovarian abscess or pelvic peritonitis should be admitted to hospital for IV antibiotics.

      It is important to note that NICE recommends treating patients who are likely to have PID without waiting for swab results. In patients considered high-risk for gonococcal infection, who have no indication for admission to hospital for parenteral antimicrobial treatment, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1 g IM, followed by 14 days of metronidazole and doxycycline is recommended. Ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or azithromycin should be avoided in women at high risk of a gonococcal infection due to increased resistance against quinolones.

      In conclusion, early identification and prompt treatment of PID is crucial to prevent complications. Treatment should be tailored to the severity of the presentation and the patient’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.8
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  • Question 115 - A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 118 kg. During her last visit, her ECG showed atrial fibrillation (AF) with a heart rate of 180 bpm, and she was started on bisoprolol. She underwent a 48-hour ECG monitoring, which revealed non-paroxysmal AF. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure

      When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice for medication, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with either a novel oral anticoagulant or warfarin is also necessary. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may be reasonable, but considering the patient’s clinical presentation and past medical history, it may not be the best option. Amlodipine will not have an effect on rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Amiodarone should not be first-line treatment in this patient due to her heart failure. Overall, the best treatment option for AF in a patient with heart failure should be carefully considered based on the individual’s medical history and current condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 35-year old woman who is currently 20 weeks pregnant is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old woman who is currently 20 weeks pregnant is concerned about the possibility of her child having congenital hip dislocation. She herself had the condition at birth, which went undiagnosed for 15 months and required corrective surgery. Despite the surgery, she has experienced hip pain throughout her adult life and is now scheduled for a hip replacement due to osteoarthritis. What is a known risk factor for congenital hip dislocation?

      Your Answer: Macrosomia

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Congenital hip dislocation is more likely to occur in females, babies who were in a breech presentation, those with a family history of the condition, firstborns, and those with oligohydramnios. The left hip is more commonly affected and screening for the condition can be done through the Barlow and Ortolani tests during a baby check. Ultrasound examination can also be done for at-risk babies to detect congenital hip dislocation.

      Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy

      The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.

      Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.

      The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine proteinuria +++
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria

      Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.

      Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on the information provided by the patient's spouse, the clinician suspects that the patient may have vascular dementia.
      What are the typical features of vascular dementia?

      Your Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Unsteadiness and falls

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that is characterized by a stepwise, step-down progression. This type of dementia is associated with vascular events within the brain and can cause a range of symptoms. One of the early symptoms of vascular dementia is unsteadiness and falls, as well as gait and mobility problems. Other symptoms may include visuospatial problems, motor dysfunction, dysphasia, pseudobulbar palsy, and mood and personality changes.

      Vascular dementia is commonly seen in patients with increased vascular risk and may have a cross-over with Alzheimer’s disease. Brain scanning may reveal multiple infarcts within the brain. To manage vascular dementia, it is important to address all vascular risks, including smoking, diabetes, and hypertension. Patients may also be placed on appropriate anti-platelet therapy and a statin.

      Compared to Alzheimer’s dementia, vascular dementia has a more stepwise progression. Additionally, it can cause pseudobulbar palsy, which results in a stiff tongue rather than a weak one. However, agnosia, which is the inability to interpret sensations, is not typically seen in vascular dementia. Visual hallucinations are also more characteristic of Lewy body dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 23-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of left knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of left knee pain after a twisting injury while playing rugby. He reports that the knee has been gradually swelling for the past day and he cannot fully extend it. During the examination, you observe tenderness over the medial joint line, a joint effusion, and the knee is held in a flexed position. Valgus stress test shows no laxity. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial meniscus tear

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (2/9) 22%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Gynaecology (3/6) 50%
Obstetrics (5/10) 50%
Surgery (8/12) 67%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (6/7) 86%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/8) 25%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (2/5) 40%
Rheumatology (4/4) 100%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (2/4) 50%
Miscellaneous (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (3/7) 43%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/3) 33%
Psychiatry (7/7) 100%
Ethics And Legal (3/4) 75%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (2/3) 67%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Plastics (0/1) 0%
Passmed