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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time in the past month. She is worried that her house is infested with rats and she frequently checks under the beds and around the property for any signs of the infestation. She mentions that she saw a therapist in her early twenties for obsessive hand washing and underwent a brief period of cognitive behavioural therapy.
Upon physical examination, there are no abnormalities found. However, upon further questioning, she admits to feeling compelled to check for rats and is constantly anxious about cleanliness.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bipolar disease
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
Explanation:Differentiating OCD from other mental health conditions
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive cycles of ritualistic behavior. It is important to differentiate OCD from other mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression. Cognitive behavioral therapy and exposure response prevention are the mainstays of therapy for OCD, along with medication. Features consistent with schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression are absent in OCD. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: Lactose breath test
Correct Answer: Small intestinal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison
Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.
Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.
Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.
Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.
Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.
Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.
In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old man on palliative chemotherapy for advanced lung cancer is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife as he has been feeling increasingly weak and lethargic over the past few days. His arterial blood gas results are below:
Investigation Result Normal range
pH 7.51 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) 11.7 kPa > 11 kPa
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) 5.5 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate (HCO3−) 29 mEq/l 22–26 mEq/l
Base excess +3 -2 to +2
Which of the following is most likely to cause this result?Your Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Causes of Acid-Base Imbalances: Explanation and Examples
Vomiting: When a patient’s arterial blood gas shows an uncompensated metabolic alkalosis, it suggests an acute cause such as vomiting. Vomiting causes a loss of stomach acid, resulting in fewer H+ ions to bind to HCO3-, leading to more free HCO3- and resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.
Aspirin Overdose: An aspirin overdose typically causes an initial respiratory alkalosis followed by a metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. The respiratory alkalosis is the result of direct stimulation of the medulla, while the metabolic acidosis is caused by an accumulation of lactic acid due to an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.
Anxiety: Hyperventilation associated with anxiety would cause a respiratory alkalosis. This is due to ‘blowing off’ carbon dioxide through hyperventilation, resulting in a decreased PaCO2 in the blood and an increased ratio of HCO3− to PaCO2, raising the pH and resulting in alkalosis.
Pulmonary Embolism: A pulmonary embolism would cause a respiratory alkalosis, usually accompanied by hypoxia or type I respiratory failure.
Respiratory Depression: Respiratory depression would cause a respiratory acidosis. Hypoventilation means that less carbon dioxide is blown off, resulting in an increase in PaCO2 in the blood, which decreases the pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 5
Correct
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You are asked to see a 43-year-old man with a stoma in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. It is sprouted and produces a liquid, light brown fluid.
What form of stoma is this likely to be?Your Answer: Ileostomy
Explanation:Types of Stomas: Ileostomy, Colostomy, Enterocutaneous Fistula, Mucous Fistula, and Urostomy
Stomas are surgical openings created in the abdomen to allow for the elimination of waste products from the body. There are different types of stomas, each with its unique characteristics and functions.
An ileostomy is a stoma created from the small intestine. The stool from an ileostomy is looser and more acidic, making it more likely to cause skin damage. To prevent this, ileostomies are fashioned with a spout for better delivery of the stoma content into the stoma bag.
A colostomy, on the other hand, is a stoma created from the large intestine. Colostomies are generally flat and placed in the left iliac fossa, although this can vary.
An enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal passage between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin. It is not a stoma.
A mucous fistula is a stoma that allows the collection of mucous associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Finally, a urostomy is formed as a result of bladder excision. Urostomies are created by anastomosis of the ureters and drainage into a segment of the small bowel, which has been resected and used to form an ileal conduit. This conduit delivers urine to the skin in the form of a spouted stoma. Urostomies can be differentiated from ileostomies by their output (urine vs. feces).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Correct
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You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.
The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.
What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a gradual onset of dry, itchy right eye and associated blurring of his vision. The patient and his family have also observed that he has difficulty completely closing his eyelid. The patient has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes but has never been hospitalized or had any eye problems before.
During the examination, the patient displays signs of miosis, partial ptosis, anhidrosis of the face, and enophthalmos.
What is the probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a lesion in the sympathetic nerve trunk, resulting in symptoms such as miosis, partial ptosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis on the same side as the lesion. The location of the lesion can be determined by the presence and location of anhidrosis. If anhidrosis is present only in the face, it indicates a Preganglionic lesion, which can be caused by conditions such as Pancoast tumors, cervical rib, and thyroid issues. On the other hand, a postganglionic lesion, which can be caused by carotid artery dissection or cavernous sinus thrombosis, results in Horner’s syndrome without anhidrosis. Central lesions, such as those caused by stroke or syringomyelia, result in Horner’s syndrome with anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk on the affected side.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her long-term partner approximately 12 hours ago. She has no medical or family history worth mentioning and is not currently using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 30 kg/m², and she does not smoke. What is the most efficient emergency contraception method for this patient?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:According to the BNF, the copper intra-uterine device is the most efficient option for emergency contraception and should be offered to all eligible women seeking such services. Unlike other medications, its effectiveness is not influenced by BMI. Additionally, it provides long-term contraception, which is an added advantage for the patient. If the copper intra-uterine device is not appropriate or acceptable to the patient, oral hormonal emergency contraception should be offered. However, the effectiveness of these contraceptives is reduced in patients with a high BMI. A double dose of levonorgestrel is recommended for patients with a BMI of over 26 kg/m² or body weight greater than 70kg. It is unclear which of the two oral hormonal contraceptives is more effective for patients with a raised BMI. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system and ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel are not suitable for emergency contraception. In conclusion, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective method for this patient because it is not affected by BMI, unlike oral hormonal emergency contraceptives.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old sheep farmer who recently arrived in the UK from Iran presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain of two week's duration. She also complains of tiredness and of being generally unwell for several months. She has not experienced a change in her bowel habit, weight loss, or night sweats.
Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate 80/min, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min. She is mildly jaundiced with RUQ pain and the liver edge is palpable 3 cm below the costal margin.
Blood tests revealed raised eosinophils and her LFTs were as follows:
- Bilirubin 30 µmol/l
- ALP 190 u/l
- ALT 36 u/l
An ultrasound scan of her liver demonstrated a 7 cm cystic lesion. The scan was technically challenging but there appeared to be daughter cysts present.
What is the recommended next investigation to carry out?Your Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:CT is the most appropriate investigation for hydatid cysts, while percutaneous aspiration is not recommended.
When dealing with cystic liver lesions, there are several possibilities to consider, such as simple cysts, cancers, abscesses, and microabscesses. Depending on the situation, any of the available options could be a valid diagnostic tool. However, in this case, the symptoms and findings suggest a hydatid cyst as the most likely cause. The patient’s location and occupation increase the likelihood of a parasitic infection, and the presence of eosinophilia and daughter cysts on ultrasound further support this diagnosis. To differentiate between hydatid cysts and amoebic abscesses, CT is the preferred imaging modality.
It is crucial to note that percutaneous aspiration of hydatid cysts is not recommended due to the risk of triggering anaphylaxis and spreading daughter cysts throughout the abdomen.
Hydatid Cysts: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hydatid cysts are caused by the tapeworm parasite Echinococcus granulosus and are endemic in Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. These cysts are enclosed in an outer fibrous capsule containing multiple small daughter cysts that act as allergens, triggering a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. The majority of cysts, up to 90%, occur in the liver and lungs and can be asymptomatic or symptomatic if the cysts are larger than 5 cm in diameter. The bursting of cysts, infection, and organ dysfunction, such as biliary, bronchial, renal, and cerebrospinal fluid outflow obstruction, can cause morbidity. In biliary rupture, the classical triad of biliary colic, jaundice, and urticaria may be present.
Imaging, such as ultrasound, is often used as a first-line investigation, while CT is the best investigation to differentiate hydatid cysts from amoebic and pyogenic cysts. Serology is also useful for primary diagnosis and for follow-up after treatment, with a wide variety of different antibody/antigen tests available. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment, but it is crucial that the cyst walls are not ruptured during removal, and the contents are sterilized first.
Overall, hydatid cysts can cause significant morbidity if left untreated, and early diagnosis and treatment are essential for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?Your Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting
Explanation:Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.
Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.
The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.
Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.
In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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