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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless frank haematuria. He has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless frank haematuria. He has been experiencing a mild testicular ache and describes his scrotum as a 'bag of worms'. He is a heavy smoker, smoking 60 cigarettes a day for 48 years. During the examination, he appears cachectic, and his left testicle has a tortuous texture. His blood work shows anaemia and polycythemia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma on the left kidney

      Explanation:

      Varicocele may indicate the presence of malignancy, as it can result from the compression of the renal vein between the abdominal aorta and the superior mesenteric artery, also known as the nutcracker angle.

      Based on the patient’s medical history, there is a strong possibility of malignancy. A mass can cause compression of the renal vein, typically on the left side, leading to increased pressure on the testicular vessels and resulting in varicocele.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma is unlikely as it occurs on the right side of the body and cannot compress the left renal vein. Torsion is also unlikely as the patient would experience severe pain and would not be able to tolerate an examination.

      The absence of tenderness in the testicle makes epididymo-orchitis an unlikely diagnosis. Additionally, there is no swelling that transilluminates, ruling out the possibility of a hydrocele.

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed...

    Correct

    • A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed to have an abnormal opening of the urethra on to the ventral surface of the penis.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Penile Deformities and Conditions

      Hypospadias, Cryptorchidism, Exstrophy, Epispadias, and Phimosis are all congenital penile deformities and conditions that affect newborn boys. Hypospadias is the most common, occurring in about 1 in every 150-300 boys. It is characterized by an abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral surface of the penis, ventral curvature of the penis, and a hooded foreskin. Cryptorchidism, on the other hand, is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac and is seen in 3% of all full-term newborn boys. Exstrophy is a rare condition where the bladder protrudes through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. Epispadias is defined as an abnormal opening of the urethra on the dorsal aspect of the penis, while Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans of the penis. These conditions may have genetic components and can lead to complications such as infection, urinary tract obstruction, and other associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following conditions is not associated with obesity in adolescents?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following conditions is not associated with obesity in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone excess

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obesity in Children

      Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment and management. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is more challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To accurately assess BMI, percentile charts are needed. According to recent guidelines by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the UK 1990 BMI charts should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.

      NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other factors such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome can also contribute to obesity in children.

      Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis and Blount’s disease, musculoskeletal pains, psychological consequences like poor self-esteem and bullying, sleep apnoea, and benign intracranial hypertension. Moreover, obesity in childhood can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease in the long run. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and manage obesity in children to prevent these adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Liam is a 22-year-old man who has had unprotected sexual intercourse and has...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 22-year-old man who has had unprotected sexual intercourse and has taken levonorgestrel 2 hours ago. He has vomited once since and is uncertain about what to do next. What is the most crucial advice to give Liam regarding his risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Recommend the copper intrauterine device (IUD)

      Correct Answer: Take a second dose of levonorgestrel as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      If a patient vomits within 3 hours of taking levonorgestrel, it is recommended to prescribe a second dose of emergency hormonal contraception to be taken as soon as possible, according to NICE guidelines. Therefore, reassuring Zoe that she is protected from pregnancy is incorrect as she needs to take another dose. Additionally, while it may be advisable for Zoe to start a regular form of contraception, this is not the most important advice to give initially. Instead, she should be offered choices of contraception, including long-acting reversible contraceptives. It is also incorrect to recommend other forms of emergency contraception, such as ulipristal acetate and the IUD, as Zoe has already taken levonorgestrel and the guidelines are clear that a second dose of this should be taken in this circumstance. However, if Zoe experiences persistent vomiting or diarrhea for more than 24 hours after taking emergency hormonal contraception, then the IUD may be offered.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old bedridden patient presents with a wound under their left heel. They complain of pain in the area and feel that the situation is getting worse. Apart from this, they are in good health and have no fever. On examination, you observe an erythematosus area measuring around 2 cm under the left heel, with partial-thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis. There is no necrotic tissue, discharge, or foul odor.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical barrier cream and repositioning

      Explanation:

      Management of Grade II Pressure Ulcers: Topical Barrier Cream and Repositioning

      Grade II pressure ulcers with partial-thickness skin loss can be managed with topical barrier creams such as Sudocrem®, Proshield™, and Cavilon™. These creams protect the underlying skin and prevent further damage. Regular repositioning and the use of aids to relieve pressure should also be implemented to improve symptoms.

      Debridement may be necessary for more severe pressure ulcers or those not responding to treatment. Compression hosiery is not indicated for pressure ulcers and should only be used after ankle-brachial pressure index testing in cases of venous ulceration.

      Oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Topical fusidic acid with hydrocortisone is only indicated for mildly infected eczema or skin rashes and is not appropriate for pressure ulcers. The primary focus for managing grade II pressure ulcers is barrier protection and repositioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24-hour-old full-term neonate is attempting to feed from her mother, but is...

    Correct

    • A 24-hour-old full-term neonate is attempting to feed from her mother, but is unable to keep anything down. The vomit appears green, indicating possible bile staining. The delivery was uncomplicated and vaginal. The neonate appears healthy and stable otherwise. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intestinal atresia

      Explanation:

      Bilious vomiting occurring on the first day of life is most likely caused by intestinal atresia, specifically duodenal atresia or ileal/jejunal atresia. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound is necessary. Malrotation is not the most likely cause as it typically presents with haemodynamic instability on the third day of life. Meconium ileus is also unlikely as it usually presents with abdominal distention within the first 48 hours. A milk allergy is not a probable cause as it does not typically result in bilious vomiting.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were...

    Correct

    • A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
      Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?

      Your Answer: Radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration

      During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Hugger™. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
      Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?

      Your Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP

      The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      76.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in his right elbow area. He reports falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched arm.
      During the examination of the affected limb, the radial pulse appears normal. The patient experiences weakness in finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits, with the index and middle fingers showing particular weakness. The patient has no feeling in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Finger extension and abduction remain unaffected.
      Which of these findings is most likely to be linked to this injury?

      Your Answer: Persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when the boy attempts to make a fist

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Injuries in the Hand: Symptoms and Causes

      When a child falls on their outstretched hand, it can result in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. This type of injury can damage the brachial artery and median nerve, leading to symptoms such as persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when attempting to make a fist. Loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three digits and weakness of finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints are also common with median nerve injury. Additionally, the inability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers (known as the ‘hand of benediction’) is caused by loss of innervation of the first and second lumbrical muscles. Other symptoms of nerve injuries in the hand include loss of thumb adduction, loss of sensation over the medial border of the hand, loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger, and loss of function of the hypothenar muscles. Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help with early diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries in the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      90.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Plastics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed