00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man presents for his regular diabetic eye screening. He had visited...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents for his regular diabetic eye screening. He had visited his GP recently and had his blood sugar levels under control. During the examination, cotton wool spots and neovascularisation are observed throughout the retina, leading to a diagnosis of proliferative retinopathy. What is the most effective treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Panretinal laser photocoagulation

      Explanation:

      Panretinal laser photocoagulation is the preferred treatment for proliferative retinopathy, a condition characterized by the growth of fragile new blood vessels that can cause vitreal hemorrhage. In addition to controlling blood sugar levels and using anti-VEGF injections, thermal burns are made using a laser to prevent abnormal blood vessel development. Conservative management and monitoring are not sufficient for definitive management, as neovascularization can lead to serious complications. Laser iridotomy and phacoemulsification are not indicated for this condition.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?

      Your Answer: von Willebrand’s disease

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to you with increasing difficulty in breathing and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to you with increasing difficulty in breathing and shortness of breath. A chest examination reveals decreased expansion on the right side of the chest, along with decreased breath sounds and stony dullness to percussion. A chest X-ray reveals a pleural effusion which you proceed to tap for diagnostic serum biochemistry, cytology and culture. The cytology and culture results are still awaited, although the serum biochemistry returns back showing the following:
      Pleural fluid protein 55 g/dl
      Pleural fluid cholesterol 4.5 g/dl
      Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) : serum ratio 0.7
      Which of the following might be considered as a diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Pleural Effusion: Sarcoidosis, Myxoedema, Meigs Syndrome, Cardiac Failure, and Nephrotic Syndrome

      When analyzing a pleural effusion, the protein levels can help differentiate between potential causes. An exudate pleural effusion, with protein levels greater than 30 g/l, can be caused by inflammatory or malignant conditions such as sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or carcinoma. However, if the protein level falls between 25 and 35 g/l, Light’s criteria should be applied to accurately differentiate. On the other hand, a transudate pleural effusion, with protein levels less than 30 g/l, can be caused by conditions such as myxoedema or cardiac failure. Meigs syndrome, a pleural effusion caused by a benign ovarian tumor, and nephrotic syndrome, which causes a transudate pleural effusion, can also be ruled out based on the biochemistry results. It is important to consider all potential causes and conduct further investigations to properly diagnose and manage the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that has been present for the past two hours. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse recently. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left testicle and scrotum. The left side lacks the cremaster reflex, and lifting the affected testicle causes more pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is a condition where the testis twists on the remnant of the processus vaginalis, leading to restricted blood flow. The main symptom is severe testicular pain, which may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The affected testis may also appear swollen and red. The cremaster reflex may be absent on the affected side, and elevating the testicle can worsen the pain.
      While the patient had unprotected sex recently, the symptoms are not typical of epididymitis, which usually involves urinary symptoms and relief of pain with testicular elevation (Prehn’s sign positive).

      Acute Scrotal Disorders in Children: Differential Diagnoses

      When a child presents with an acute scrotal problem, it is crucial to rule out testicular torsion as it requires immediate surgical intervention. The most common age for testicular torsion is around puberty. On the other hand, an irreducible inguinal hernia is more common in children under two years old. Epididymitis, which is inflammation of the epididymis, is rare in prepubescent children. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a child with an acute scrotal disorder. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment can prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is...

    Correct

    • A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is exhibiting irritability and has experienced a convulsion 72 hours after birth. No visible head trauma or swelling is present. What type of cranial injury is most probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Caput succedaneum is a condition that occurs when pressure is applied to the fetal scalp during birth, resulting in a swollen and bruised area. This condition typically resolves on its own within a few days and does not require treatment.

      Cephalohaematoma, on the other hand, can occur after a vaginal delivery or due to trauma from obstetric tools. This condition results in bleeding between the skull and the periosteum, causing a tense swelling that is limited to the outline of the bone. Cephalohaematoma typically resolves over a period of weeks to months.

      Subaponeurotic haemorrhage, also known as subgaleal haemorrhage, is a rare condition that can occur due to a traumatic birth. This condition can result in significant blood loss in the infant.

      Intracranial haemorrhage refers to bleeding within the brain, including subarachnoid, subdural, and intraventricular haemorrhages. Subarachnoid haemorrhages are common and can cause irritability and convulsions in the first few days of life. Subdural haemorrhages can occur due to the use of forceps during delivery. Intraventricular haemorrhages are most common in preterm infants and can be diagnosed using ultrasound examinations.

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and dark floaters over the past few weeks. Fundoscopy is challenging due to patches of redness obscuring the fundus. He has a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and takes metformin, pioglitazone, atorvastatin, and dapagliflozin. He is concerned about having a stroke, as his father had one in the past. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage are the two main causes of sight loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection in his local hospital. He visits the senior anaesthetist at the pre-operative assessment clinic to assess his eligibility for surgery and organize any necessary pre-operative investigations. According to NICE, who should undergo a chest X-ray as part of their pre-operative assessment?

      Your Answer: Not routinely recommended

      Explanation:

      It is no longer standard practice to perform chest x-rays prior to surgery. However, individuals who are 65 years or older may require an ECG before undergoing major surgery. Patients with renal disease may need a complete blood count and an ECG before intermediate surgery, depending on their ASA grade. Patients with hypertension do not require any specific pre-operative tests.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
      What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?

      Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
      What is the most likely cause of her main concern?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions

      When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.

      Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.

      Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).

      Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which one of the following would not be consistent with a diagnosis of 'growing pains'?

      Your Answer: Present upon waking in the morning

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs without obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Passmed