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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of double vision. Upon examination, his eye is turned down and out, and he has limited adduction, elevation, and depression of the eye, as well as ptosis. Additionally, his pupil is fixed and dilated. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Their Symptoms

      Cranial nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on which nerve is affected. Here are some common cranial nerve palsies and their associated symptoms:

      Third Nerve Palsy: This affects the oculomotor nerve and causes the eye to be positioned downward and outward, along with ptosis (drooping eyelid) and mydriasis (dilated pupil).

      Sixth Nerve Palsy: This affects the abducens nerve and causes medial deviation of the eye.

      Fourth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trochlear nerve and causes the eye to look out and down, resulting in vertical or oblique diplopia (double vision). Patients may tilt their head away from the affected side to correct this.

      Horner’s Syndrome: This presents with miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis, and ipsilateral anhidrosis (lack of sweating on one side of the face).

      Fifth Nerve Palsy: This affects the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for facial sensation and some motor functions related to biting and chewing. It does not affect the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Ulnar neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy

      When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.

      A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.

      A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.

      By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old girl without past medical history is brought to the General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl without past medical history is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother with 24 hours of headache and fever. She has also had two episodes of non-bloody vomiting this morning and states that ‘both legs are sore all over’. She is up to date with all of her vaccinations and has never been hospitalised in the past. No one in the child’s social circle has been unwell recently and she has no travel history. She has no drug allergies.
      On examination, discrete lesions of approximately 1–2 mm are visible, present on the trunk and legs. This rash is non-blanching. The mucous membranes are moist without lesions present. Her hands are cool to touch with a capillary refill time of three seconds. She is unable to fully flex her neck. Her observations are shown below:
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      Blood pressure 100/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 107 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of Meningococcal Meningitis: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Meningococcal meningitis is a serious bacterial infection that requires urgent medical attention. In patients presenting with symptoms such as a non-blanching petechial rash, myalgia, and unstable vital signs, immediate transfer to a hospital and treatment with intramuscular benzylpenicillin is imperative. Third-generation cephalosporins can be considered in patients with a penicillin allergy. Early recognition and prompt treatment with antibiotics are associated with improved prognosis. Discharging the patient with supportive care would be inappropriate in this case.

      Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are not recommended in the acute management of meningococcal meningitis. Ciprofloxacin is indicated in close contacts of patients with meningococcal infection and should be given as early as possible following exposure. Local health authorities should also be notified.

      Although the effectiveness of steroids in preventing neurological complications following bacterial meningitis has not been conclusively proven in studies, they are often prescribed in the clinical setting. Oral prednisolone, however, is not indicated in these patients.

      Oral rifampicin is not indicated in the acute management of patients with bacterial meningitis, but it can be considered in close contacts who come into contact with the index case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.1
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  • Question 4 - You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
      Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy

      Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.

      Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.

      Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?

      Your Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage

      The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.

      Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.

      Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.

      Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
      What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations

      Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:

      1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.

      2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.

      3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.

      4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.

      5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.

      6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.

      By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical...

    Correct

    • You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
      Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Confabulation and repetition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features

      Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.

      Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.

      Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).

      Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.

      It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Correct

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer: Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) opening pressure ranges from 14 to 24 mmH2O

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.6
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
      Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age

      When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.5
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with an ‘ape hand’ deformity...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with an ‘ape hand’ deformity after being stabbed in his arm. Upon examination, he is found to have median nerve damage and is unable to abduct his thumb. What other function is likely to be impaired in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sensation to the second and third digits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Injuries: Implications for Sensation and Movement

      Nerve injuries can have significant implications for both sensation and movement. One common example is the ape hand deformity, which occurs following a median nerve injury and results in an inability to abduct the thumb. In addition to this motor deficit, the median nerve also provides sensation to the dorsal aspect of the distal first two digits, the volar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the fourth digit, as well as the palm and medial aspect of the forearm.

      Other nerve injuries can affect different aspects of movement and sensation. For example, the radial nerve innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist, while the ulnar nerve provides sensation to the fifth digit and controls the palmar interossei muscles responsible for finger adduction. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint is controlled by the axillary nerve (deltoid muscle) and suprascapular nerve (supraspinatus muscle).

      Understanding the specific nerve involved in an injury can help clinicians predict the potential deficits a patient may experience and develop appropriate treatment plans to address them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.1
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as hesitancy and incomplete emptying. He lives independently and has primary progressive multiple sclerosis. He recently recovered from a UTI and upon investigation, it was found that he has heavy colonisation of Proteus. An ultrasound bladder scan reveals 400 ml of residual volume. What is the most suitable long-term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic catheterisation

      Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis often leads to a neurogenic bladder, causing urinary retention and associated symptoms such as incomplete bladder emptying, urgency, discomfort, and recurrent UTIs. The following are some management options for urinary symptoms in multiple sclerosis:

      1. Intermittent self-catheterisation: This is the preferred method for ambulant and independent patients. After training, the patient self-catheterises a few times a day to ensure complete bladder emptying, relieving symptoms and reducing the risk of recurrent UTIs. A muscarinic receptor antagonist, such as oxybutynin, can also be used.

      2. Suprapubic catheterisation: This is only indicated when transurethral catheterisation is contraindicated or technically difficult, such as in urethral injury or obstruction, severe benign prostatic hypertrophy or prostatic carcinoma.

      3. Continuous low-dose trimethoprim: There is no current guidance for the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent UTIs in multiple sclerosis. The aim is to primarily relieve the retention.

      4. Long-term urethral catheterisation: If symptoms progress and become bothersome for the patient, despite behavioural methods, medication and/or intermittent self-catheterisation, then a long-term catheter can be the next best option. Additionally, in cases where patients are not ambulant or have a disability that would prevent them from being able to self-catheterise, a long-term catheter may be a more desirable choice of management of urinary symptoms.

      5. Muscle relaxant baclofen: Baclofen is not used in the treatment of urinary retention. It is an antispasmodic used in multiple sclerosis to relieve contractures and spasticity.

      Management Options for Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.4
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after a collision with a heavy-goods vehicle. Immediately after the collision she was unconscious for three minutes. Since regaining consciousness, she appears dazed and complains of a headache, nausea and ringing in her ears, and she is aversive to light and sound. Prior to examination she had an episode of vomiting.
      An ABCDE assessment is performed and the results are below:
      Airway Patent, able to speak
      Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 18 per min, SaO2 97% on room air, normal and symmetrical chest expansion, normal percussion note bilaterally, normal vesicular breath sounds throughout
      Circulation Heart rate (HR) 97/min, blood pressure (BP) 139/87 mmHg, capillary refill time (CRT) <2 s, ECG with sinus tachycardia, normal heart sounds without added sounds or murmurs
      Disability AVPU, pupils equal and reactive to light, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) = 13 (E4, V4, M5), no signs suggestive of basal skull fracture
      Exposure Temperature 36.8 °C, multiple bruises but no sites of external bleeding, abdomen is soft and non-tender
      Which of the following would be appropriate in the further management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate referral to neurosurgery

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan within eight hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Guidelines for CT Scan, Intubation, Neurosurgery Referral, Discharge, and Fluid Resuscitation

      Head injuries require prompt and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Evidence-based guidelines recommend performing a CT head scan within eight hours for adults who have lost consciousness temporarily or displayed amnesia since the injury, especially those with risk factors such as age >65 years, bleeding or clotting disorders, dangerous mechanism of injury, or more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia. If the patient has a GCS of <9, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Immediate referral to neurosurgery is not required unless there is further deterioration or a large bleed is identified on CT scan. Patients with reduced GCS cannot be discharged from the ED and require close monitoring. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloid, such as normal saline and/or blood, is crucial to avoid hypotension and hypovolaemia, while albumin should be avoided due to its association with higher mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.8
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing forgetfulness. He used to be able to manage his own medications, but now forgets to take them regularly. He has also been misplacing items around the house and forgetting important appointments. When his daughter tries to remind him of these things, he becomes defensive and irritable.
      His lab results show normal levels of vitamin B12, folate, thyroid hormones, and electrolytes. He does not screen positive for depression. His MMSE score is 20/30, and his brain MRI reveals general brain atrophy.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      First-Line Management for Alzheimer’s Disease: Medications to Consider

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a common form of dementia that primarily affects older adults. A patient’s clinical presentation, laboratory markers, MMSE results, and neuroimaging can help diagnose AD. Once diagnosed, the first-line management for AD typically involves cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications can provide modest symptomatic relief for some patients with AD. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy for patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage psychotic manifestations of AD, but it is not indicated in this scenario. Tacrine, a centrally-acting anticholinesterase medication, is rarely used due to its potent side-effect profile. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, can be used as adjunctive treatment for insomnia in patients with AD but is not indicated as monotherapy. Overall, the first-line management for AD involves cholinesterase inhibitors, with memantine as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.4
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a blood pressure of 180/95 mmHg. You suspect that she may have had a subarachnoid haemorrhage and arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan. This is normal. She undergoes a lumbar puncture and the results are shown below:
      Pot 1: red cells 490 × 109/l, white cells 10 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 2: red cells 154 × 109/l, white cells 8 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 3: red cells 51 × 109/l, white cells <5 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage >1 week ago

      Correct Answer: Traumatic tap

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Lumbar Puncture Results in Neurological Conditions

      Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis in various neurological conditions. The results of a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information in diagnosing conditions such as traumatic tap, subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, and viral meningitis.

      Traumatic Tap: A traumatic tap is characterized by a gradation of red cell contamination in sequential samples of CSF. This condition is often accompanied by severe headaches and can be managed with adequate analgesia and reassessment of blood pressure.

      Confirmed Recent Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage, red cells within the CSF are expected to be constant within each bottle. However, a more reliable way to examine for subarachnoid hemorrhage is to look for the presence of xanthochromia in the CSF, which takes several hours to develop.

      Bacterial Meningitis: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly polymorphs. CSF protein and glucose, as well as paired blood glucose, are valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing bacterial meningitis.

      Viral Meningitis: Viral meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly lymphocytes. Protein and glucose levels in the CSF are also valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing viral meningitis.

      Subarachnoid Hemorrhage >1 Week Ago: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred more than a week ago, few red cells would remain in the CSF. In such cases, examining the CSF for xanthochromia in the lab is a more valuable test.

      In conclusion, interpreting lumbar puncture results requires careful consideration of various parameters and their respective values in different neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.6
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography

      Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:

      1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.

      2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.

      3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.

      5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.

      In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come...

    Incorrect

    • You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come and review a patient, as she is acting ‘odd’. Her eyes are open spontaneously, she is withdrawing to pain and she is making incomprehensible sounds.
      What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a total possible score of 15.

      A patient with a GCS score of 11 is showing M5 (localising response to pain), E4 (incomprehensible speech), and V2 (eye opening in response to pain). This indicates that the patient is obeying commands, oriented, and has spontaneous eye opening.

      It is important to note that the GCS score is just one aspect of a patient’s overall assessment and should be used in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past three days. What signs suggest a possible diagnosis of giant cell arthritis?

      Your Answer: Proximal myopathy

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy demonstrating mononuclear cell infiltration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Giant Cell arthritis

      Giant cell arthritis is a condition that affects the arteries, particularly those in the head and neck. To diagnose this condition, the American College of Rheumatology has developed criteria that require the fulfillment of at least three out of five criteria. These criteria have a 93% sensitivity of diagnosis.

      The first criterion is age over 50, as this condition is more common in older individuals. The second criterion is the onset of a new type of localized headache, which is often severe and persistent. The third criterion is an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of over 50 mm/hr by the Westergreen method, which indicates inflammation in the body. The fourth criterion is temporal artery tenderness to palpation or decreased pulsation, which can be felt by a doctor during a physical exam. The fifth criterion is an arterial biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation or mononuclear cell infiltration, usually with multinucleated giant cells.

      Overall, the diagnosis of giant cell arthritis requires a combination of clinical and laboratory findings. If a patient meets at least three of these criteria, further testing and treatment may be necessary to manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination...

    Incorrect

    • During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination where the neurologist conducted palpation on the pterion of the skull to check for a pulse. What is the name of the blood vessel that the neurologist was palpating for?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Correct Answer: Superficial temporal artery

      Explanation:

      Palpable and Non-Palpable Blood Vessels in the Head and Neck Region

      The head and neck region contains several blood vessels that can be palpated or felt through the skin, while others are located intracranially and cannot be palpated. Here are some of the blood vessels in the head and neck region and their characteristics:

      Superficial Temporal Artery
      The superficial temporal artery is located superficially to the pterion, which is the bony area of the skull where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. Loss of pulsation in this area may indicate giant cell arthritis, an inflammatory condition of large arteries that can cause temple pain, jaw claudication, and sudden-onset blindness. Diagnosis is done through a biopsy of the temporal artery, and treatment involves high-dose steroids and biologics.

      Facial Artery
      The facial artery can be felt as it crosses the inferior border of the mandible near the anterior margin of the masseter muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Artery
      The anterior division of the middle meningeal artery is located under the pterion, but it cannot be palpated because of its intracranial position.

      Common Carotid Artery
      The common carotid artery is located in the neck and can be felt in the anterior triangle of the neck, along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Vein
      The middle meningeal vein accompanies the middle meningeal artery, but it cannot be palpated because it is located intracranially.

      In summary, some blood vessels in the head and neck region can be palpated, while others are located intracranially and cannot be felt through the skin. Understanding the location and characteristics of these blood vessels is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?

      Your Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.

      Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.

      Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.

      Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.

      Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.

      Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.

      In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due to recent concerns with his speech. He has been experiencing difficulty verbalising his thoughts and finds this frustrating. However, there is no evidence to suggest a reduced comprehension of speech.
      He struggles to repeat sentences and well-rehearsed lists (such as months of the year and numbers from one to ten). He is also unable to name common household objects presented to him. Additionally, he constructs sentences using the incorrect tense and his grammar is poor.
      Imaging studies reveal that the issue is located in the frontotemporal region of the brain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conductive (associative) dysphasia

      Correct Answer: Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Aphasia and Their Characteristics

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of characteristics. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA) primarily affects speech and language, causing poor fluency, repetition, grammar, and anomia. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is a fluent aphasia that causes impaired comprehension and repetition, nonsensical speech, and neologisms. Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia that affects the ability to communicate fluently, but does not affect comprehension. Semantic dementia affects semantic memory, primarily affecting naming of objects, single-word comprehension, and understanding the uses of particular objects. Finally, conductive dysphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, resulting in anomia and poor repetition but preserved comprehension and fluency of speech. Understanding the characteristics of each type of aphasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of individuals with language disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Clinic with progressive bilateral upper leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Clinic with progressive bilateral upper leg weakness. He experiences difficulty climbing stairs and is unable to participate in school sports due to severe muscle cramps during exertion. There is a family history of muscle problems on his mother's side of the family, and the paediatrician suspects a genetic muscular dystrophy. What is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Genetic testing

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy

      Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting. The most likely diagnosis for a patient with suspected muscular dystrophy is Becker muscular dystrophy, which typically presents with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness between the ages of 7 and 11. Here are some investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis:

      Creatine kinase: Patients with muscular dystrophy will have elevated creatine kinase, making this an appropriate initial investigation in its workup.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG would be an important investigation to perform in patients with muscular dystrophy, as both Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies are complicated by cardiomyopathy. However, it would be done once the diagnosis is confirmed.

      Genetic testing: Genetic testing is conducted in patients with suspected muscular dystrophy to confirm the diagnosis and determine the chromosomal abnormality. It would not, however, be the initial investigation and is time-consuming and costly. Before genetic testing, patients and their family should receive genetic counselling so that they are aware of the potential ramifications of abnormal results.

      Muscle biopsy: A muscle biopsy is an important investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy, to confirm the diagnosis. It would not be an initial investigation, however, and would be considered after bloods, including creatine kinase.

      Serum magnesium: Low magnesium levels can result in muscle twitching and weakness but would not be the most appropriate initial investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy. Patients with low magnesium often have a history of malabsorptive conditions or chronic diarrhoea and it would be unlikely for there to be a family history.

      Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of feeling excessively tired during the day. He has been prescribed donepezil for Alzheimer's disease (AD), and he has observed some improvement in his cognitive abilities with this medication. However, his wife reports that he struggles to sleep at night and is becoming increasingly lethargic during the day.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Choosing the Right Treatment

      Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. Patients with AD often experience sleeping difficulties due to changes in circadian rhythms and medication side-effects. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often used as adjunctive treatment in patients with AD to manage insomnia. Along with sleep hygiene measures, such as avoidance of naps, daytime activity, and frequent exercise, trazodone is likely to help this patient’s sleeping problems.

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage the psychotic manifestations of AD. However, the clinical scenario has not provided any evidence that the patient is suffering from psychosis. Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unlikely to benefit the patient who is already taking a similar medication.

      Memantine, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy in patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. However, this patient is experiencing sleeping difficulty and is more likely to benefit from a medication that specifically targets this clinical problem.

      Tacrine, a centrally acting anticholinesterase inhibitor medication, was previously used for the management of AD. However, due to its potent side-effect profile of fatal hepatotoxicity, it is now rarely used. Additionally, tacrine is unlikely to help this patient’s insomnia.

      Choosing the right medication for AD requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and potential side-effects. Trazodone may be a suitable option for managing insomnia in patients with AD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
      Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity

      The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained during a bar brawl. He has a wound with glass fragments embedded in it. On examination, he is unable to make a fist, and there is no sensation in his thumb, index, and middle fingers. There are no other neurological deficits in his arms or other limbs.
      Which nerve is the most likely culprit in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Overview of Major Nerves in the Arm and Their Functions

      The arm is innervated by several major nerves, each with its own specific functions. The median nerve supplies the flexors of the forearm and provides cutaneous sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral three fingers. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the fifth and medial half of the fourth digit and corresponding palm, and motor innervation to several muscles. The radial nerve supplies sensory innervation to the posterior lateral regions of the arm and forearm, as well as over the lateral dorsal surface of the hand up to the fingers. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and flexor muscles of the elbow, while the axillary nerve supplies the deltoid, teres minor, and long head of the triceps brachii. Injuries to these nerves can result in various symptoms, including weakness and loss of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms

      Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer: CT scan

      Correct Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.

      Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.

      Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.

      Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.

      Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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