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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man presents with a history of malaise and fever for several...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a history of malaise and fever for several months. He complains of intermittent swelling and pain in his left ear, painful red eyes, and arthralgia. He has no past medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      During the examination, you observe left auricular swelling, bilateral anterior uveitis, and symmetrical small joint polyarthritis.

      Lab results show Hb 115 g/l, Na+ 138 mmol/l, platelets 330 * 109/l, K+ 4.2 mmol/l, WBC 13.1 * 109/l, urea 6.2 mmol/l, neuts 10.4 * 109/l, creatinine 95 µmol/l, lymphs 2.5 * 109/l, CRP 132 mg/l, eosin 0.6 * 109/l, pANCA negative, C3 normal, C4 normal, ANA negative, Anti Sm negative, RhF positive, and Anti CCP negative.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Relapsing polychondritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Relapsing Polychondritis

      Relapsing polychondritis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body, causing inflammation and deterioration of cartilage. The most commonly affected area is the ears, but it can also affect the nose, joints, and other parts of the body. Symptoms include auricular chondritis, hearing loss, vertigo, nasal chondritis leading to a saddle-nose deformity, respiratory tract issues such as hoarseness and wheezing, ocular problems like episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca, and joint pain. In rare cases, it can also cause cardiac valve regurgitation, cranial nerve palsies, peripheral neuropathies, and renal dysfunction.

      Diagnosis of relapsing polychondritis is based on various scoring systems that take into account clinical, pathological, and radiological criteria. Treatment involves inducing remission with steroids and maintaining it with medications like azathioprine, methotrexate, cyclosporin, or cyclophosphamide.

      Overall, understanding relapsing polychondritis is important for those who may be experiencing symptoms or have been diagnosed with the condition. It can help individuals better manage their symptoms and work with their healthcare providers to find the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      74.2
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents to your clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents to your clinic with a blood pressure reading of 145/95 mmHg. He reports not regularly monitoring his blood pressure at home and is currently asymptomatic. Upon examination, his cardiovascular and fundoscopic findings are unremarkable, and his 12-lead ECG shows no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. He is currently taking a regimen of 10 mg amlodipine, 10 mg ramipril, 1.5 mg indapamide, and 25 mg spironolactone. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a hypertension specialist

      Explanation:

      Seeking Expert Advice for Resistant Blood Pressure

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, if a patient is already taking four antihypertensive medications and their blood pressure remains uncontrolled, seeking expert advice is recommended. This is because the patient may have resistant hypertension, which requires specialized management.

      The guidelines suggest that if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, seeking expert advice is necessary. This advice should be sought even if it has not been obtained previously. This is because resistant hypertension is a complex condition that requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, lifestyle factors, and medication regimen.

      In summary, if a patient’s blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking four antihypertensive medications, seeking expert advice is crucial. This will ensure that the patient receives the appropriate management for their condition and reduces the risk of complications associated with uncontrolled hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      72.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor to discuss his medication. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor to discuss his medication. He reports feeling more fatigued and getting easily tired than before, and he experiences shortness of breath after climbing stairs, which was not a problem until about 4 months ago. He also thinks he has gained a few kilograms of weight, despite having a poor appetite lately. He denies any history of chest pain.

      During the physical examination, the patient's heart rate is 68 beats per minute with a regular rhythm, and his blood pressure is 110/90 mmHg. His extremities are cool, and his carotid pulse is difficult to feel. Upon auscultation of his precordium, the doctor notes an inaudible 2nd heart sound and a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the right upper sternal border and radiates to his neck. The doctor also hears audible crepitations bi-basally, and the patient has 1+ peripheral edema.

      Which of the following management strategies would have the greatest impact on this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer: Obtain an echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Referral to cardiothoracic surgery for aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Patients who exhibit signs and symptoms of heart failure along with severe aortic stenosis should be referred for consideration of aortic valve replacement surgery. This patient has a narrow pulse pressure, an absent 2nd heart sound, and a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates into his neck, all of which suggest severe aortic stenosis. Additionally, he is experiencing fatigue, weight gain, and shortness of breath on exertion, as well as pulmonary and peripheral edema, all of which are indicative of heart failure. Aortic valve replacement surgery has been shown to improve mortality in such cases.

      While loop diuretics such as furosemide can help alleviate fluid overload and improve symptoms, they do not affect prognosis in heart failure patients.

      An echocardiogram would be useful in this case to further evaluate the severity of the aortic stenosis and assess the patient’s ejection fraction. However, it will not impact his prognosis as we already know from the physical examination that he has severe aortic stenosis.

      An ECG and troponin test would be appropriate for patients presenting with symptoms of acute coronary syndrome. However, this patient’s symptoms are more consistent with decompensated congestive heart failure related to severe aortic stenosis. Therefore, aortic valve replacement surgery is the best course of action to improve his prognosis.

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.

      Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      96.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old Indian man is seen in the renal outpatient clinic. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Indian man is seen in the renal outpatient clinic. He has been experiencing a gradual decline in his renal function for the past 4 years due to poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His eGFR is currently at 8 ml/min, but he is still able to pass urine. Recent ultrasound scans have indicated that he is a suitable candidate for a renal transplant. However, given his ethnicity, there is an uncertain wait for organ suitability should he choose to pursue this option. During the consultation, his 17-year-old daughter offers to donate a kidney due to the high likelihood of compatibility, which the patient is interested in exploring.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 92 g/l
      Platelets 180 * 109/l
      WBC 7.0 * 109/l

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 19.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 290 µmol/l
      pH 7.30

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Start preparation for haemodialysis and list for renal transplant with the patients son's kidney

      Correct Answer: Start preparation for haemodialysis and list for renal transplant on national transplant list

      Explanation:

      The patient’s renal dysfunction is a result of uncontrolled diabetes and is not expected to improve on its own. There are no immediate indications for initiating renal replacement therapy. The appropriate timing for renal transplantation is a topic of debate, as the rate of renal function decline can vary among patients. However, it is generally agreed that once the underlying cause is deemed irreversible and the eGFR drops below 30, transplantation should be considered.

      Understanding Renal Replacement Therapy

      Chronic kidney disease affects a significant portion of the population, with around 10% of those with CKD developing renal failure. For patients with renal failure, the options are either renal replacement therapy (RRT) or conservative management. RRT involves taking over the physiology of the kidneys, and there are several types available, including haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplant. The decision about which RRT option to choose should be made jointly by the patient and their healthcare team, taking into account various factors such as predicted quality of life, life expectancy, patient preference, and co-existing medical conditions.

      Haemodialysis is the most common form of RRT, where the blood is filtered through a dialysis machine in the hospital. Peritoneal dialysis is another option where the filtration occurs within the patient’s abdomen. Renal transplantation involves receiving a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. Each option has its own set of complications, such as site infection, peritonitis, DVT/PE, and more.

      Without adequate RRT, the symptoms of renal failure can be severe, including breathlessness, fatigue, insomnia, pruritus, poor appetite, swelling, weakness, weight gain/loss, abdominal cramps, nausea, muscle cramps, headaches, cognitive impairment, anxiety, depression, and sexual dysfunction. It is crucial for patients and their healthcare team to carefully consider the best RRT option for their individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      91.8
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  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman presents with a diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with a diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast that is negative for oestrogen and progesterone receptors but positive for HER2 overexpression. She underwent a lumpectomy, during which two positive lymph nodes were found on axillary lymph node dissection. The patient is in good health and only takes paracetamol as needed for pain relief after surgery. Physical examination is unremarkable except for the healing lumpectomy site.

      In addition to adjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Correct Answer: Trastuzumab

      Explanation:

      This patient has high-risk breast cancer with lymph node involvement and HER2-positive tumour status. Endocrine therapy is not appropriate. Chemotherapy alone is inadequate treatment. Trastuzumab in addition to chemotherapy is recommended for HER2 overexpression. Bevacizumab is not indicated in the adjuvant setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      51.4
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that has been bothering her...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that has been bothering her for the past week. She complains of left-sided pain that is excruciating and makes it difficult for her to sleep at night. The pain worsens when she lies down, and she has noticed that her nose is blocked on that side. She has been feeling achy all over for the last few days and has vomited. She has tried taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, but they have not provided any relief. She is otherwise healthy and only takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      During the examination, she appears lethargic. Her eye movements are normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. She can move all her limbs with a power of 5/5 and has normal reflexes. She walks with a slow but steady gait. She is coryzal and refuses to let you examine her face when you press over the frontal area.

      A few days ago, she was seen in the emergency department with this headache, and the report indicated that there is a homogeneous collection of moderately enhancing material in the frontal sinus. There is no evidence of bleeding, mass effect, or hydrocephalus.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sinusitis

      Explanation:

      A severe and persistent headache accompanied by rhinitis is indicative of sinusitis. The patient’s medical history reveals an acute onset of headache, but a CT scan rules out the possibility of meningioma. The headache does not match the characteristics of a subarachnoid hemorrhage or hemicrania continua. While the patient’s use of oral contraceptive pills puts them at risk for idiopathic intracranial hypertension, there are no other symptoms present, and fundoscopy shows no signs of papilloedema. Although the patient is anxious during the examination, their sinuses are extremely tender, and a CT scan incidentally reveals a buildup of mucous in the sinuses.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old teacher presents with a one week history of fever, cough, headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old teacher presents with a one week history of fever, cough, headache and dyspnoea. She has no past medical history of note. She has no recent overseas travel history but does travel widely within the United Kingdom with her work.

      She has a temperature of 40.1°C, heart rate is 121 bpm, and saturations are 92% air.

      Investigations are as follows:

      Na 128 mmol/L (137-144)

      Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 109 µmol/L (60-110)

      WBC 11.7 g/dL (4.0- 11.0)

      CRP 73 mg/L (<10)

      Urine 2+ protein

      2+ blood

      Sputum Mainly leukocytes, no organisms seen

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcal pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Legionnaires' disease

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires’ Disease: A Potentially Fatal Infection

      Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria. People who work in hotels or other buildings with air conditioning systems are at a higher risk of contracting this infection. Symptoms include respiratory tract infection, hyponatremia, deranged liver function tests, microscopic hematuria, and proteinuria. Sputum sampling may not be helpful in diagnosing the disease. The Legionella bacterium was first identified in 1976 during an American Legion convention held at a hotel in Philadelphia. The infection is believed to have spread through the hotel’s air conditioning system.

      Legionnaires’ disease can be fatal, especially in patients with underlying health conditions. The mortality rate can be as high as 80% in untreated patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      48.7
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  • Question 8 - You assess a 27-year-old female patient who complains of frequent headaches and transient...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old female patient who complains of frequent headaches and transient vision disturbances. She also experiences dizziness and double vision on several occasions. Her BMI is 32 and bilateral papilloedema is observed during the examination. A CT scan shows no mass lesion, but a lumbar puncture reveals an elevated opening pressure. You suspect the patient has idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
      What risk factor is associated with a higher prevalence of idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A excess

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Causes and Treatment Options

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that primarily affects women in their third decade of life and is characterized by increased pressure within the skull. The exact cause of IIH is unknown, but it is associated with a high body mass index and certain medications, such as contraceptive hormones, dopamine agonists, antibiotics, and phenytoin. Vitamin A excess is also a known cause of IIH.

      Diagnosis of IIH involves ruling out other conditions through imaging tests and measuring the pressure within the skull through a lumbar puncture. Treatment options include weight management, discontinuing any medications that may be contributing to the condition, and using diuretics like acetazolamide. Therapeutic lumbar puncture may also be helpful.

      While medications like atenolol and bendroflumethiazide are useful for treating other conditions like angina and hypertension, they have no role in treating IIH. Additionally, excessive intake of certain B vitamins can cause peripheral neuropathy, but vitamin C is water-soluble and typically does not cause harm in excess amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      88.8
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol consumption for over three...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol consumption for over three decades presents to the emergency department with pain in the upper right abdomen and epigastric region. He reports feeling nauseated and has vomited multiple times. He also complains of profuse sweating and feeling very hot. Despite his symptoms, he continued to drink alcohol up until his admission.

      During his medical history, he recalls being advised to undergo gallbladder surgery by a surgeon in the past, but he cannot remember the details as he left the hospital against medical advice.

      Upon examination, the patient appears flushed and has a fever of 38°C. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, and his pulse rate is 100 beats per minute. His sclera are yellow, and he has eight spider naevi on his upper torso. Heart sounds are normal, and his chest is clear upon auscultation. His abdomen is tender in the right upper quadrant, but no mass is palpable. There is no detectable ascites, and rectal examination is unremarkable.

      Laboratory investigations reveal abnormal results, including elevated liver enzymes, high white blood cell count, and an elevated international normalized ratio. His serum albumin is low, and his total bilirubin is high.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fever, Jaundice, and RUQ Pain

      In this case, the patient’s lifestyle suggests an alcohol-related cause for their symptoms, but the absence of a high AST to ALT ratio makes alcoholic hepatitis less likely. Instead, the patient’s low albumin and platelets, along with an elevated INR, indicate significant underlying liver disease. While acute on chronic pancreatitis can have normal amylase, the triad of fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain points to cholangitis as the most likely diagnosis, supported by the blood tests. Although an ultrasound is needed to confirm the presence of empyema, no mass is felt on clinical examination. Acute cholecystitis may also be present, but the obstruction seen on the blood tests suggests common bile duct pathology. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      95.6
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing chronic abdominal pain for the past three...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing chronic abdominal pain for the past three years. His pain is alleviated by defecation and he has noticed an increase in stool frequency. The symptoms seem to worsen during times of stress. Based on this information, what symptoms suggest a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Recurrent abdominal discomfort relieved by defecation

      Explanation:

      mucous Passage through Rectum as a Symptom of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      The Revised Rome III criteria for diagnosing irritable bowel syndrome includes the passage of mucous through the rectum as a symptom. This symptom is a clear indication of IBS and is not associated with any organic disease. On the other hand, other symptoms such as blood in stool, weight loss, and fever suggest the presence of an underlying organic disease. Therefore, the presence of mucous in the stool is a crucial factor in diagnosing IBS and differentiating it from other gastrointestinal disorders. It is important to note that IBS is a functional disorder and does not cause any structural damage to the digestive system. The passage of mucous through the rectum is a common symptom of IBS and should be taken seriously when diagnosing the condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those suffering from IBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man with diabetic renal disease underwent a cadaveric renal transplant. On...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with diabetic renal disease underwent a cadaveric renal transplant. On the fourth day after surgery, his creatinine level was 140 µmol/L (60-110 µmol/L). He is currently taking high dose prednisolone, azathioprine, and ciclosporin for immunosuppression. His urine output was initially good at 60 ml per hour, but decreased to 40 ml per hour on the sixth day. Repeat blood tests showed that his creatinine level had increased to 210 µmol/L (60-110 µmol/L). He has no fever, with a pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg. He appears to be euvolaemic and is not experiencing any abdominal pain.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Get an ultrasound scan of transplanted kidney and renal tract

      Explanation:

      Management of Deterioration in Renal Function after Transplant

      There are several reasons why renal function may deteriorate soon after a renal transplant, including hyperacute rejection, acute tubular necrosis, and surgical complications. In such cases, the most sensible management step is to obtain an urgent ultrasound scan to rule out any mechanical obstruction of the renal tract, especially if there is a dropping urine output and rising creatinine.

      It is not advisable to perform a biopsy at this stage until mechanical obstruction has been ruled out. While immunosuppressive agents may contribute to renal impairment, there are too many other differential diagnoses to consider, so decreasing the dosage of ciclosporin is not recommended. Increasing the dose of steroid may help if immunological rejection is suspected, but this has not been confirmed as a diagnosis yet.

      It is important to note that the patient’s clinical examination shows euvolaemia, so giving a 1 litre fluid bolus would not be necessary. By obtaining an ultrasound scan to exclude mechanical obstruction, healthcare professionals can take the appropriate steps to manage deterioration in renal function after a transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      56.9
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of dysphagia and odynophagia. He has a medical history of HIV but is non-compliant with his anti-retroviral treatment.

      Observations:

      Heart rate: 88 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 120/72 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 18/minute
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air
      Temperature: 37ºC

      During the examination, white patches are observed on the gums, tongue, and extending beyond the pharynx. Other than that, the examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: Fluconazole

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for candidiasis in immunocompromised patients with oesophageal symptoms such as dysphagia and odynophagia is high dose fluconazole. This is because the patient’s non-compliance with HIV treatment puts them at risk of developing AIDS, and oesophageal candidiasis is an AIDS-defining illness. Amphotericin is not recommended due to its significant toxicity and is only used for life-threatening, disseminated fungal infections. Lansoprazole is not suitable as the symptoms are not likely caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux, and nystatin is insufficient for treating candidiasis in immunocompromised patients.

      Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients

      Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcers and knee osteoarthritis presents...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcers and knee osteoarthritis presents with worsening left knee pain over the past week. The pain is exacerbated by walking and climbing stairs, and is severely limiting her mobility. She denies any recent knee injury or swelling. Currently, she is taking co-codamol (30/500 mg) up to four times a day, NSAID gel, and fentanyl patches to manage her pain. On examination, she is found to be overweight and there is crepitus in her right knee, but no effusion is present. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injections

      Explanation:

      Managing Flares of Osteoarthritis-Related Knee Pain

      Flares of osteoarthritis (OA) related knee pain are common and can be quite debilitating. While acupuncture and oral corticosteroids are not effective in controlling such pain, there are several options available. Opiates, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)/Coxibs, and intra-articular corticosteroid injections are all viable options for managing OA-related knee pain. However, of these options, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective.

      It is important to note that the need for intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections should be guided by symptoms rather than the presence or absence of joint effusion. This means that the decision to administer such injections should be based on the patient’s level of pain and discomfort rather than any physical signs of inflammation.

      In summary, managing flares of OA-related knee pain requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s individual symptoms and needs. While there are several options available, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective and should be considered when other treatments have failed to provide relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      49.9
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  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic for a review with his general...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic for a review with his general practitioner. He has been experiencing an elevated blood pressure of 156/75 mmHg, which has been confirmed by home ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. He has no previous medical history and has recently moved to the UK from Nigeria, where he works as a software engineer.

      Upon examination, there are no notable findings.

      Which anti-hypertensive medication would be the most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient of black African or African-Caribbean origin with hypertension, the recommended pharmacological treatment is a calcium channel blocker as the first choice. Amlodipine is the correct medication in this case, as studies have shown that patients of Afro-Caribbean ethnicity respond less well to ACE inhibitors than other populations. Beta blockers like atenolol typically come in step 4 of the NICE guidelines for hypertension management, and thiazide diuretics like indapamide are usually trialed after a combination of a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor. Losartan may be a reasonable choice for patients under 55 years of age and Caucasian, but amlodipine is a better choice for black African or African-Caribbean patients.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      58
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old female patient presents to the Cardiology Clinic with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient presents to the Cardiology Clinic with a complaint of shortness of breath during physical activity for the past year. Upon echocardiography, it is discovered that she has a congenital bicuspid aortic valve with a mean gradient of 45 mmHg. She expresses her desire to start a family and mentions that she would prefer not to have to administer injections during pregnancy. What is the best course of treatment for her valve condition?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy under cardiologist supervision and subsequent valve replacement

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Management of Aortic Stenosis in Pregnant Patients

      Pregnancy can worsen symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis (AS), especially those under 30 years old with congenital AS. Valvotomy is only an option for those who cannot undergo surgery, leaving bio-prosthetic valve replacement as the best choice before pregnancy. Untreated AS has a low 5-year survival rate of 40%.

      For patients with severe symptomatic AS who wish to start a family, intervention on the valve prior to pregnancy is recommended to avoid the 10% maternal morbidity associated with pregnancy in this context. National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance suggests valvuloplasty only for those unsuitable for surgery, as its efficacy is short-lived in adults.

      Metal valve replacement requires warfarinisation, which is teratogenic in early pregnancy and not advised in late pregnancy due to the risk of haemorrhage. This makes it unsuitable for this patient, who prefers not to inject herself with low molecular weight heparin while trying to conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of fever, myalgia, and abdominal pain. He had recently traveled through Cote d'Ivoire but had not been in contact with anyone known to have a viral haemorrhagic fever. He had been taking malaria prophylaxis with good concordance. On examination, he appeared unwell, dehydrated, and feverish. His chest examination was unremarkable, but he was diffusely tender in his abdomen without any rebound guarding or organomegaly. There were no signs of haemorrhage or rash. His neurological examination was unremarkable, and laboratory reports showed some abnormalities. His haemoglobin was 120 g/L, WCC was 3.5 ×109/L, platelets were 501 ×109/L, neutrophils were 2.4 ×109/L, and lymphocytes were 0.8 ×109/L. His sodium was 134 mmol/L, urea was 7.5 mmol/L, potassium was 3.6 mmol/L, and creatinine was 86 µmol/L. His urine dip showed protein 1+ and nothing else. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Contact microbiologist/infectious disease consultant

      Correct Answer: Isolate the patient in a side room

      Explanation:

      Protocol for Managing Patients with Viral Haemorrhagic Fever

      In cases where a patient has an intermediate risk for a viral haemorrhagic fever, the Department of Health has issued a protocol to help manage and investigate these patients. The protocol involves identifying patients who have a fever of >37.5°C or have a history of fever and a travel history or epidemiological exposure within 21 days. Once identified, the patient is isolated so that risk assessments can be completed, and adequate personal protective equipment instructions can be given. If there are concerns, an infectious diseases specialist is consulted.

      To ensure that patients at risk are quickly identified, triage mechanisms need to be in place. The priority in managing these patients is to isolate them in a side room so that the risk can be managed effectively. By following this protocol, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with viral haemorrhagic fever are managed appropriately and that the risk of transmission is minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      148
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a three-month history of frequent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a three-month history of frequent loose stools and occasional episodes of facial flushing. She has no significant medical history, has not traveled recently, and is not taking any medications. On examination, she appears dehydrated and is referred to the hospital's AMU.
      Upon admission, blood tests reveal the following results:

      Arterial pH 7.33 7.35 - 7.45
      Arterial pCO2 4.5 kPa 4.7 - 6.0 kPa
      Arterial pO2 13.8 kPa > 10.5 kPa
      Arterial HCO3 17.8 mmol/l 22.0 - 26.0 mmol/l

      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.8 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 91 μmol/l 50 - 120 μmol/l
      Calcium (Ca2+) 2.72 mmol/l 2.2 - 2.7 mmol/l
      Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.47 mmol/l 0.6 - 1.1 mmol/l
      Further investigations reveal a negative stool culture for bacterial and fungal infections, and a CT scan shows a lesion on her pancreas.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: VIPoma

      Explanation:

      VIPoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that causes hypersecretion of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP), resulting in watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and acidosis. This tumor is typically found in the pancreas, and more than half of cases are malignant. In addition to these symptoms, patients with VIPoma may also experience facial flushing.

      While laxative abuse could cause similar symptoms, it would not explain the presence of a pancreatic mass or facial flushing. Bacterial infections are also unlikely, as they typically present with fever and positive stool cultures. Insulinomas, which are tumors that secrete insulin, would explain the pancreatic mass but not the diarrhea and flushing. Pancreatitis, which causes inflammation of the pancreas, could explain the biochemical abnormalities but not the presence of a pancreatic mass or flushing.

      Overall, VIPoma is a rare but important diagnosis to consider in patients presenting with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, acidosis, facial flushing, and a pancreatic mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      117.7
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old Japanese city banker with a history of irritable bowel disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Japanese city banker with a history of irritable bowel disease presents with recurrent mouth ulcers that have been occurring more frequently despite previous treatment with chlorhexidine mouthwashes, oral aciclovir, and prednisolone lozenges. He has also been experiencing pain at the tip of his penis during sexual intercourse and has been feeling increasingly tired, leading him to give up playing football. He denies any weight loss and his appetite is unchanged. On examination, multiple aphthous ulcers are found in the oral cavity, as well as a small aphthous ulcer on the tip of the penis. Abdominal examination reveals mild, diffuse tenderness but no masses, and rectal examination reveals no abnormality. Investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and platelets, and slightly elevated urea and creatinine levels. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is slightly elevated, but anti-nuclear antibody and anti-dsDNA antibody tests are negative. The patient is currently taking oxytetracycline for acne. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex type I infection

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s syndrome is a chronic disease that affects multiple systems in the body and is most commonly found in the Mediterranean, Middle East, and Japan. It has been linked to certain HLA types, including B12, -B51, and -B5. Diagnosis is made by excluding other conditions, as there is no specific test for it. Behçet’s syndrome is a vasculitic disorder that affects both arteries and veins, often leading to thrombosis. Symptoms include painful oral and genital ulcers, ocular inflammation, arthritis, skin lesions, and abnormal response to tissue injury. Treatment is usually symptomatic, but some cases may require systemic corticosteroids or immunosuppressants. Reactive arthritis, Crohn’s disease, herpes simplex type I infection, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all conditions that can be ruled out based on the specific symptoms present in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      59.8
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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman presents to the infectious diseases clinic for an urgent review....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to the infectious diseases clinic for an urgent review. She had been to the emergency department the previous weekend with constitutional symptoms and was found to have positive blood cultures. On review, she reports a 3-week history of intermittent fever, malaise, and reduced appetite, with occasional excessive sweating. She denies joint pains and other symptoms. She had recently returned from a trip to Turkey where she consumed unpasteurized dairy products. On examination, she has hepatosplenomegaly. Investigations show low white cell count, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and positive blood cultures for Brucella species. The patient strongly prefers outpatient treatment. What is the appropriate treatment regimen?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline monotherapy for 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline and rifampicin for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis is a bacterial disease that is commonly contracted from contact with animals, particularly sheep and goats. In countries such as Syria, Iraq, Turkey, Greece, and Tunisia, where the disease is endemic, it can also be acquired from consuming unprocessed animal products. Laboratory workers and individuals with close contact with animals are also at risk of contracting the disease.

      The symptoms and signs of brucellosis are non-specific, which can lead to delayed diagnosis. In addition to the symptoms experienced by the patient in the question, brucellosis can also cause migratory arthritis, lymphadenopathy, and malodorous perspiration. Rare complications include pneumonia, pulmonary effusion, peripheral neuropathy, meningoencephalitis, and endocarditis. Positive blood cultures provide the most definitive diagnosis of brucellosis, although various serological tests are also available. Microbiological diagnosis is also possible from the culture of samples obtained from infected organs.

      Oral treatment of brucellosis involves a 6-week course of doxycycline and rifampicin. An alternative treatment regimen combines 6 weeks of oral doxycycline with 3 weeks of either intramuscular streptomycin or intravenous gentamicin. Treatment involving parenteral antibiotics has a lower failure rate but is less convenient for the patient.

      The other possible answers are antimicrobial treatment regimes for Helicobacter pylori, tuberculosis, Lyme disease, and malaria.

      Reference: Ramin B, MacPherson P. Human brucellosis. BMJ 2010;341:c4545.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are non-specific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      66.6
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman is ready to leave the hospital after being admitted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is ready to leave the hospital after being admitted for four days due to feeling unwell for a month with symptoms of vomiting, postural dizziness, and weight loss. Addison's disease was diagnosed after a Synacthen test, and she was prescribed hydrocortisone three times a day and fludrocortisone daily. She has no medical history or prior treatments. Her hydrocortisone doses are 10mg at 09:00 and 5mg at 12:00 and 15:00. She mentions to the medical team that she occasionally works night shifts. What is the appropriate advice regarding steroid dosing for night shifts?

      Your Answer: On shift days take doses at 09:00, but then take second dose at starting shift and third dose six hours into shift

      Correct Answer: Adjust to take first dose at waking, then doses at three hours and six hours from starting

      Explanation:

      Patients with Addison’s disease require replacement of both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid. As cortisol levels follow a diurnal rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and lowest levels between midnight and 4 am, replacement therapy should aim to mimic this natural pattern. Typically, replacement doses are divided into three, with the first dose taken upon waking, followed by doses at midday and early afternoon. When patients have a shift in their daily routine, such as working night shifts or traveling, they should continue to take their morning dose upon waking and maintain the same dosing schedule. Patients should be advised against skipping doses and encouraged to ensure they always have an adequate supply of medication.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing Medic Alert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.

      During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      120.8
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old female returned from Tanzania 2 weeks ago and presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female returned from Tanzania 2 weeks ago and presents to the medical take with symptoms of fever, headache and generalised arthralgia. She had taken doxycycline as an antimalarial and had been fully vaccinated prior to her travel. However, she admits to getting mosquito bites regularly whilst away and had a severe reaction to one of them, leaving a mark on her shoulder. On examination, she appears drowsy, has mild hepatosplenomegaly and a well circumscribed, rubbery, painful, red lesion approximately 5 cm in diameter above her left shoulder. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trypanosomiasis brucei gambiensi

      Correct Answer: Trypanosomiasis brucei rhodesiensi

      Explanation:

      Human African trypanosomiasis (HAT), also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by protozoan parasites. There are two forms of the disease: an acute form mainly found in East Africa caused by Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense, and a more chronic form found in West and Central Africa caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense. Trypanosomiasis brucei cruzi is endemic in South America, where it causes Chagas disease.

      T. rhodesiense is transmitted by the tsetse fly, which is commonly found on safari in Tanzania. The first and only sign of disease is often a chancre at the site of inoculation, and the disease progresses rapidly.

      Although malaria is a potential diagnosis, the patient has taken adequate prophylaxis, so we should consider other potential diagnoses. Additionally, the patient’s illness began three days prior to admission, making P. falciparum less likely, as it would have resulted in severe illness by this point.

      T. cruzi can be discounted early on, as it is endemic in South America. T. gambiense typically presents with a more chronic picture.

      Understanding Trypanosomiasis

      Trypanosomiasis is a protozoal disease that comes in two main forms: African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, and American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease. The former has two types: Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa, both of which are spread by the tsetse fly. Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to have a more acute course. Symptoms include a painless subcutaneous nodule at the site of infection, intermittent fever, enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes, and later, central nervous system involvement such as somnolence, headaches, mood changes, and meningoencephalitis.

      On the other hand, American trypanosomiasis is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. In the acute phase, the vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic, although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at the site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract, with myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atrophy) and arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal features including megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation.

      Early disease management for African trypanosomiasis involves IV pentamidine or suramin, while later disease or central nervous system involvement requires IV melarsoprol. Treatment for American trypanosomiasis is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox. Chronic disease management involves treating the complications, such as heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old male patient visits the clinic with a complaint of motor and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient visits the clinic with a complaint of motor and verbal tics that are causing him embarrassment. He was diagnosed with Tourette syndrome at the age of 16 and had undergone habit reversal therapy (HRT) which provided partial relief. However, his symptoms have worsened now. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      What medication would you prescribe to block the effects of dopamine in the basal ganglia for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for tics is antipsychotics, which work by blocking dopamine levels that cause the repetitive, stereotyped motor or vocal movements. Risperidone is a commonly used antipsychotic, while clozapine is reserved as a last resort due to its potentially dangerous side effects such as myocarditis and neutropaenia. It is important to note that drugs such as methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, and lamotrigine can actually cause tics.

      Tics are characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements that occur intermittently and follow a stereotypical pattern. These movements can include blinking and shrugging, and are present in around 15% of primary school age children.

      There are various treatment options available for tics, including the use of clonidine and atypical antipsychotics. These medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of tics and improve the quality of life for those affected. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being found unconscious by his roommate. On examination, he has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6, blood pressure (BP) 80/50 mmHg and a ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a rate of 180 bpm. There are several empty bottles of amitriptyline 50 mg tablets found in his room.
      Investigations:

      pH 7.20 7.35–7.45
      pa(CO2) 6.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pa(O2) 7.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      He is intubated and ventilated and admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU).
      What is the most appropriate additional intervention in managing this tricyclic overdose?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil IV

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate IV

      Explanation:

      Management of Tricyclic Antidepressant Overdose

      Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can be fatal even with a small amount of 1000 mg. QRS prolongation is an early sign of significant toxicity, and QRS prolongation over 120 ms can lead to ventricular arrhythmias. Sodium bicarbonate is the recommended first-line intervention for managing tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Propranolol can increase the risk of arrhythmia, while verapamil is not recommended due to PR prolongation. Flecainide can also increase the risk of rhythm disturbance. Flumazenil, used for benzodiazepine overdose reversal, can increase the risk of seizures in tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      26.5
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset weakness and numbness affecting the left side of her face, arm, and leg. She experienced a typical migraine attack while out shopping with a friend, followed by the weakness and numbness. She did not experience any disturbance of consciousness, vision, or speech.

      The patient has a history of troublesome migraines with aura and had a previous episode of right arm weakness six months ago, which lasted for 20 minutes before she recovered. She takes regular pizotifen 1.5 mg and Maxalt melt and is also on the oral contraceptive pill. There is a family history of migraine and strokes, and her mother died in her 50s with dementia. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and does not drink any alcohol.

      On examination, her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, pulse is 65/min and regular, and heart sounds are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals left facial asymmetry and weakness with reduced sensation over the left face extending to the vertex. Pupils and fundoscopy are normal. Peripheral nervous system examination shows mild left hemiparesis of 4/5 with hyper-reflexia and left extensor plantar response. There is numbness to all modalities over the left arm and leg.

      A brain MRI scan shows bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR hyperintensities in the deep white matter. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the following data is obtained: opening pressure 8 cmH2O (6-18), CSF protein 0.35 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 3 cells per mL (≤5), CSF red cell count 2 cells per mL (≤5), CSF lactate 1.1 mmol/L (1-2), and CSF oligoclonal bands are negative.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient based on her history and clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Commence on intravenous methylprednisolone

      Correct Answer: Stop the oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      CADASIL Diagnosis in Patient with Migraine and Stroke-Like Episodes

      This patient has a history of migraine and has experienced two episodes that resemble strokes. Their family also has a history of migraine, strokes, and dementia. As a result, the possibility of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CADASIL) should be considered. A diagnosis of CADASIL can be confirmed through DNA testing for the notch-3 gene mutation.

      It is important to note that the patient should stop taking the oral contraceptive pill due to its association with stroke in individuals with migraines. By identifying and addressing these risk factors, the patient can receive appropriate treatment and management to prevent further complications. Proper diagnosis and management of CADASIL can also help to reduce the risk of stroke and other related conditions in both the patient and their family members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and joint pains. He has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol.

      During the examination, the physician observes a 'slate-grey' appearance of the skin and tenderness at the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints on the left hand, but no apparent swelling. The cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal.

      The following blood tests are conducted:

      - Hb: 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 195 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC: 4.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 92 µmol/L (55-120)
      - CRP: 3 mg/L (<5)
      - 9am cortisol: 410 nmol/L (170-420)
      - TSH: 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.0)
      - HbA1c: 41 mmol/L (<48)

      X-ray of the hand reveals hook-like osteophytes at the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints on the left hand.

      Considering the probable diagnosis, what is the most effective screening test for this condition in the general population?

      Your Answer: Insulin like growth factor - 1 (IGF-1)

      Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of leg pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of leg pain. He has been experiencing a crampy uncomfortable feeling in the back of both of his calves when he walks to the shops over the last few months. The discomfort is so severe that he has to stop and rest for a few minutes, after which he notices an improvement in his symptoms. He also experiences these symptoms when he is shopping in the supermarket. He attributes this to overexertion and tries to rest on his shopping trolley while walking, but it does not seem to help. He has a 35-pack year smoking history and takes amlodipine for his blood pressure, and paracetamol and ibuprofen for lower back pain that has troubled him for years.

      During the physical examination, the doctor observes mild atrophy of his thigh and calf muscles bilaterally, in addition to shiny pale skin with significant hair loss throughout his lower limbs. His pedal pulses are bilaterally impalpable, and popliteal pulses are faint. Power in both lower limbs is normal throughout all movements, and he has normal patellar reflexes bilaterally and absent ankle reflexes. His Babinski reflex is downgoing on the left side and equivocal on the right side. A recently obtained ankle brachial pressure index test yielded a result of 0.70 on the right side and 0.95 on the left side. X-rays of his lumbar spine show evidence of joint space narrowing and osteophytes.

      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to vascular surgery for consideration of peripheral arterial stenting or bypass surgery

      Explanation:

      For patients who exhibit symptoms of claudication and have cardiovascular risk factors, an ankle brachial pressure index study may yield equivocal or borderline results. In such cases, the recommended next step is to conduct an ankle brachial pressure index after exercise.

      In the case of the gentleman in question, his symptoms suggest vascular claudication rather than neurogenic claudication, which is characterized by symptoms that improve with certain maneuvers. His physical exam reveals signs of peripheral arterial disease, including muscle atrophy, hair loss, and impalpable pedal pulses. While his lumbar spine x-ray shows evidence of degenerative joint disease, an MRI scan is not necessary as his clinical presentation is not consistent with neurogenic claudication.

      The patient’s symptoms require treatment, and referral to vascular surgery is the next best step. Treatment strategies may include percutaneous interventions with stenting and/or surgical bypass. While it is important to manage cardiovascular risk factors, this alone will not address the patient’s symptoms or disease course.

      The patient’s pain is most likely vascular claudication rather than neuropathic pain, and therefore, duloxetine is not an appropriate treatment. While individuals with peripheral arterial disease are at risk for concomitant coronary disease, screening for this is not necessary in the absence of symptoms. The focus should be on addressing and treating the patient’s symptoms related to peripheral arterial disease.

      Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.

      In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.

      The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old male with a history of epilepsy presents with a fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male with a history of epilepsy presents with a fever and rash. He has been experiencing difficulty controlling his seizures and has recently started taking carbamazepine and valproate. Over the past week, he has developed a painful, diffuse erythematous rash that appears to slide laterally upon palpation. In addition, he has blistering and inflammation in his oral cavity. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema elevatum diutinum

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Causes of Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe and potentially fatal skin condition that causes widespread skin and mucous membrane damage. The cause of TEN is uncertain, but it is often associated with viral infections, leukemia, lymphoma, and certain medications such as sulphonamides and anticonvulsants. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and clinical history suggest that their TEN is due to carbamazepine therapy.

      TEN is similar to Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and the treatment for both conditions is similar. However, TEN is more severe and has a higher mortality rate. It is important to note that the suggested association with carbamazepine makes toxic shock syndrome due to Staph. aureus unlikely. Additionally, pustular psoriasis would not be expected to affect the mucous membranes.

      In summary, TEN is a serious skin condition that can be caused by various factors, including medications. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial to improve the patient’s outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department in a confused and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department in a confused and agitated state after experiencing a seizure. She had woken up an hour earlier to find her husband dead in bed next to her, and an ultrasound confirmed that her 26-week-old fetus had also passed away. The patient reports that both she and her husband had been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past week, and had recently moved into an old house they were renovating. The day before, they had painted their bedroom and eaten reheated Chinese food for dinner. The patient has a history of well-controlled asthma and had quit smoking when she became pregnant, but had recently been experiencing headaches. On examination, she is tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, pulse of 120 beats per minute, and oxygen saturations of 98% on air. There is no visible rash or purpura on her body, and her heart and abdominal exams are normal. What is the most likely cause of this tragic event?

      Your Answer: Lead poisoning

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Carbon Monoxide Poisoning and Other Possible Causes of Acute Illness

      Carbon monoxide poisoning is still a significant cause of death, with 75 fatalities per year. The symptoms of this type of poisoning are often non-specific, including headache, malaise, myalgia, and weakness. It is also worth noting that fumes from cleaning fluids and paint removers containing methylene chloride can also cause carbon monoxide poisoning. When inhaled, methylene chloride is converted into CO gas, which can be deadly.

      In a specific case, a woman survived carbon monoxide poisoning because her unborn child’s fetal haemoglobin preferentially bound to the poisonous gas. However, lead poisoning does not present as acutely, and there is no indication of methaemoglobinaemia in the patient’s history. While it is possible that the patient’s symptoms could be due to septicaemia caused by Bacillus cereus or meningococcus, the clinical findings do not support this hypothesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of anxiety, palpitations, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of anxiety, palpitations, and a resting tremor that have been present for the past two weeks. She also reports flu-like symptoms and pain in her anterior neck. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over her thyroid. Her blood pressure is 115/88 mmHg, and she has a fine tremor at rest, sweaty palms, and a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. Her TSH level is <0.05 U/ml.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The patient’s recent experience of flu-like symptoms and pain in the thyroid gland suggests that they may have subacute thyroiditis. This condition causes a temporary increase in thyroid hormone release, rather than an overproduction, so anti-thyroid drugs are not necessary. Instead, the patient can find relief from symptoms with propranolol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to manage pain and inflammation. It is possible that the patient may experience a period of hypothyroidism after the thyrotoxicosis subsides, but typically, they will recover normal thyroid function without needing thyroxine replacement. Therefore, options such as carbimazole, propylthiouracil, and the block-replace regimen are not appropriate.

      Understanding Subacute (De Quervain’s) Thyroiditis

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis and subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism, while the third phase, which lasts for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. The fourth phase is when the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, a thyroid scintigraphy is usually performed, which shows a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. Treatment for subacute thyroiditis is usually not required, as the condition is self-limiting. However, if thyroid pain is present, it may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs. In more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      71.6
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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old male presents with a four hour history of left sided chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with a four hour history of left sided chest pain, radiating to his left arm. He also complains of sweating in both his hands and has vomited twice in the last hour. ECG demonstrates ST depression in II, III and aVF, troponin is 0.68 (normal range <0.03). On examination, he is alert but extremely clammy. You note his pulse at the radial artery is 36/ minute and regular. His BP on the cardiac monitor is 118/65. An NSTEMI is diagnosed and the patient is taken to the catheter laboratory for reperfusion therapy. Which coronary artery is most likely to be occluded?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coronary Circulation

      Coronary circulation refers to the blood flow that supplies the heart with oxygen and nutrients. The arterial supply of the heart is divided into two main branches: the left coronary artery (LCA) and the right coronary artery (RCA). The LCA originates from the left aortic sinus, while the RCA originates from the right aortic sinus. The LCA further divides into two branches, the left anterior descending (LAD) and the circumflex artery, while the RCA supplies the posterior descending artery.

      The LCA supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum, while the RCA supplies the right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle. The SA node, which is responsible for initiating the heartbeat, is supplied by the RCA in 60% of individuals, while the AV node, which is responsible for regulating the heartbeat, is supplied by the RCA in 90% of individuals.

      On the other hand, the venous drainage of the heart is through the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium. During diastole, the coronary arteries fill with blood, allowing for the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscles. Understanding the coronary circulation is crucial in the diagnosis and management of various heart diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset expressive dysphasia and right hemiparesis. He...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset expressive dysphasia and right hemiparesis. He has a history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking ten units of alcohol per week. He is also hypertensive and takes 2.5 mg of bendroflumethiazide. On examination, he has expressive aphasia, right-sided homonymous hemianopia, and a right extensor plantar response. CT brain shows a left middle cerebral artery territory ischemic stroke. His ECG shows sinus rhythm, and Doppler of carotids shows 20-30% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery and 40% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery. He has been started on aspirin 300 mg per day and simvastatin 40 mg on the day of admission. All investigations have been completed by day three of his admission. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Admit to stroke unit

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stroke Patients

      When a patient suffers from a left middle cerebral artery stroke, it is likely due to atherosclerosis in the left carotid artery. However, if the stenosis is less than 70%, carotid endarterectomy is not recommended. Recent studies have shown that adding clopidogrel to aspirin does not improve outcomes and can increase gastrointestinal side effects. Thrombolysis is only considered if administered within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Admission to a stroke unit has been shown to improve overall prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.6
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  • Question 32 - A 73-year-old man presents with a prolonged history of dysphagia for both liquids...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with a prolonged history of dysphagia for both liquids and solids. Occasionally, food gets stuck, but this is relieved by drinking large amounts of fluid.

      On a chest X-ray, a dilated lower oesophagus with a fluid level behind the heart is observed. Barium swallow shows gradual narrowing of the distal end of the oesophagus, ‘swan-necking’. Endoscopy reveals food residue in the distal oesophagus. Routine bloods are entirely unremarkable.

      His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 64/min and regular.

      What would be the most appropriate initial medical treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic endoscopy with balloon dilatation and botulinum toxin injection

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Management of Achalasia: Medical Treatment Options and Potential Complications

      Achalasia is a condition characterized by failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and esophageal dilatation. While the cause of achalasia is unknown, medical treatments include calcium channel antagonists like nifedipine or nitrate donors such as isosorbide dinitrate. Botox injections may be considered if systemic medical therapy fails. However, case series have shown a 7% increase in cases of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma over 25 years in patients with achalasia. Therapeutic endoscopy with balloon dilatation and botulinum toxin injection are effective treatments for achalasia, especially in elderly patients. Cardiomyotomy may be considered if medical therapy or therapeutic endoscopy fails.

      Diltiazem, a calcium channel antagonist, may have a role in dilating the lower esophageal sphincter, but its cardioselectivity may cause symptomatic bradycardia in some cases. Beta-blockers like atenolol do not lead to sphincter dilation and are not recommended for achalasia. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like ramipril have no role in esophageal sphincter relaxation and are mainly used for hypertension, renal protection, and reducing major adverse cardiac events. Propranolol is not used for achalasia but is mainly used for treating portal hypertension in patients with cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 42-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight loss and occasional diarrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight loss and occasional diarrhea. She has no significant medical history and is unsure of her family history as she was adopted. During examination, multiple oral papillomas are noted, and there is diffuse swelling in the neck. Colonoscopy reveals scattered small polyps throughout the colon, some of which are removed for histological analysis. Laboratory results show elevated bilirubin and normal liver function tests, as well as low hemoglobin and high platelet count. The histology of the colonic polyp shows a hamartomatous polyp with dilated mucous-filled glands and plasma and lymphocytic infiltration of the lamina propria. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type 2B (MEN2B)

      Correct Answer: Cowden syndrome

      Explanation:

      When multiple hamartomatous polyps are found in the gastrointestinal tract, it may indicate the presence of one of several hamartomatous polyposis syndromes, including Cowden syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, familial juvenile polyposis, neurofibromatosis type one, and multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type 2. These syndromes are distinct from more common adenomatous syndromes like HNPCC and familial adenomatous polyposis. Cowden syndrome, for example, is caused by a defect in the PTEN tumor suppressor gene and is characterized by hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract and mucocutaneous lesions like oral mucosal papillomas, palmoplantar keratoses, and trichilemmomas. Early diagnosis is important due to the high risk of malignancy, particularly in the breast and thyroid. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, on the other hand, results in polyps with a distinct histological appearance and is typically accompanied by peristomal hyperpigmentation. Familial adenomatous polyposis is associated with hundreds to thousands of colonic adenomas, while familial juvenile polyposis results in multiple polyps in the colon without the associated oral lesions. Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type 2B is associated with medullary cell thyroid cancer and intestinal polyps that are asymptomatic and easily identified histologically as ganglioneuromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden confusion. His wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden confusion. His wife reports that he had been experiencing nausea and vomiting for the past 10 days since returning from a trip to Vietnam. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. His brother was treated for tuberculosis 6 months ago.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 38.3ºC
      Heart rate 116 beats/min
      Blood pressure 112/76 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
      Saturations 96% on air

      On examination, he is disoriented to time and place but recognizes his wife. He complains of a severe headache, but the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable. His chest is clear, heart sounds are normal, and his abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dengue fever

      Correct Answer: Japanese encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from Japanese encephalitis, which is a common cause of encephalitis in South East Asia, China, and India. This disease is spread by Culex mosquitoes that breed in rice paddy fields. While most cases are asymptomatic, more severe cases can present with symptoms such as headache, fever, seizures, and confusion. This patient’s symptoms of acute confusion and headache following a recent trip to Vietnam suggest a diagnosis of Japanese encephalitis.

      Dengue fever is another viral illness that can cause fever, headache, and myalgia, along with a maculopapular rash and facial flushing. However, it does not typically present with symptoms of acute encephalitis.

      Disseminated tuberculosis is less likely, as it typically affects the respiratory system and presents with constitutional symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss. While the patient’s sister was recently treated for tuberculosis, the abrupt onset of illness and absence of these symptoms suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Meningitis, which can have a viral or bacterial cause, presents with similar symptoms such as fever, headache, and vomiting, along with photophobia and meningism. However, the absence of these symptoms and the acute onset of confusion make a diagnosis of encephalitis more likely.

      Understanding Japanese Encephalitis

      Japanese encephalitis is a viral infection that is commonly found in South East Asia, China, the Western Pacific, and India. It is transmitted by culex mosquitoes that breed in rice paddy fields. The virus is carried by aquatic birds, but pigs are also at risk of contracting the disease. Although most infections are asymptomatic, those who do show symptoms may experience headaches, fever, seizures, confusion, and even acute flaccid paralysis. Parkinsonian features may also indicate basal ganglia involvement.

      Diagnosis of Japanese encephalitis is done through serology or PCR, and management is supportive. However, prevention is key in avoiding the disease altogether. A vaccine is available in various types to protect against Japanese encephalitis. It is important to note that close domestic contact with pigs is a risk factor for contracting the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      212.9
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  • Question 35 - A 50 year-old female presents to the clinic referred by her primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year-old female presents to the clinic referred by her primary care physician. She reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, and increased sweating over the past four months. Additionally, she has noticed a decrease in her sex drive.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a pulse rate of 121 beats per minute with a bounding pulse character. Her blood pressure is 118/79 mmHg, and heart sounds 1 and 2 are present with no added sounds. The patient's chest is clear, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no organomegaly. She has a smooth goitre but no signs of thyroid eye disease. Examination of her cranial nerves is normal.

      Recent blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hb: 11.3 g/dl
      - Platelets: 190 * 109/l
      - WBC: 10.9 * 109/l
      - Na+: 129 mmol/l
      - K+: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Urea: 7.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 94 µmol/l
      - ALP: 155 u/l
      - Calcium: 2.40 mmol/l
      - Albumin: 40 g/L
      - TSH: 11 mU/L
      - Free T4: 41 pmol/L
      - Free T3: 11 pmol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: TSH secreting pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Macroadenomas are a common type of pituitary tumor that can cause symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, sweating, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat. Additionally, patients may experience signs of hypopituitarism.

      Understanding Thyroid Function Tests

      Thyroid function tests are used to diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. The interpretation of these tests is usually straightforward. In cases of thyrotoxicosis, such as Graves’ disease, the TSH level will be low and the free T4 level will be high. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH level will be high and the free T4 level will be low. In cases of secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and free T4 levels will be low, and replacement steroid therapy is required prior to thyroxine.

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, now referred to as non-thyroidal illness, is common in hospital inpatients and is characterized by low levels of both TSH and free T4. T3 levels are particularly low in these patients. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Poor compliance with thyroxine can also result in high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Steroid therapy can result in low TSH levels and normal free T4 levels.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      109.9
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  • Question 36 - An elderly female presents with a 2 week history of breathlessness. Her past...

    Correct

    • An elderly female presents with a 2 week history of breathlessness. Her past medical history includes diet-controlled type 2 diabetes, ischaemic heart disease, hypothyroidism and depression. Her medication list includes levothyroxine, aspirin, simvastatin, ramipril, bisoprolol and citalopram. Observations on presentation to Emergency Department are as follows: respiratory rate 26/min, saturations 94% (on 4 litres oxygen via Venturi), heart rate 80 beats per minute, blood pressure 156/82 mmHg. Auscultation demonstrates crackles at the left base with no wheeze. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is no oedema peripherally.

      Blood results on admission are provided below:

      Hb 134 g/l
      Platelets 172 * 109/l
      WBC 13.3 * 109/l
      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 5.1 mmol/l
      Urea 13 mmol/l
      Creatinine 178 µmol/l
      Serum osmolality 220 mosm/kg
      Urinary sodium 50 mEq//l

      What is the most likely cause of hyponatraemia in this elderly female patient?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old man presents for review after undergoing coronary angiography. The results show...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for review after undergoing coronary angiography. The results show that he has dual vessel disease and requires CABG. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with ramipril and felodipine, and peripheral vascular disease. He also takes simvastatin 40 mg and aspirin 75 mg. His blood pressure is 148/84 mmHg, pulse is 74 and regular. A right carotid bruit is detected, and a pre-operative carotid duplex is requested to assess the situation. There is no history of prior stroke or TIA. The investigations reveal a 65% stenosis in the left carotid and a 75% stenosis in the right carotid. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Change aspirin to clopidogrel and do not proceed to CABG

      Correct Answer: Proceed to CABG

      Explanation:

      The NASCET Study and Treatment for Carotid Artery Disease

      The NASCET study, which stands for the North American carotid endarterectomy experience, provides the largest body of data regarding treatment for carotid artery disease. According to this study, patients who undergo endarterectomy have better outcomes if they have significant coronary artery disease treated beforehand. This suggests that addressing coronary artery disease prior to endarterectomy can improve the success of the procedure.

      In cases where a patient has already suffered a completed stroke, the use of clopidogrel is recommended. However, in the scenario presented, neither a completed stroke nor the use of clopidogrel has occurred. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider the NASCET study findings when determining the best course of treatment for patients with carotid artery disease. Proper treatment can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of future strokes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      91.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increased fatigue, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increased fatigue, shortness of breath, and difficulty walking up stairs. She was recently diagnosed with HIV and is currently on an HAART regimen containing abacavir. On examination, she has bilateral crackles on lung auscultation and her echocardiogram shows cardiomyopathy. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her pulse is 90 bpm.

      Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l), a white cell count of 5.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), a platelet count of 130 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l), a sodium level of 138 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), and a creatinine level of 98 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Abacavir hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor related cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) therapy, which is commonly used in the treatment of HIV, can lead to cardiomyopathy by reducing vascular responsiveness and causing mitochondrial dysfunction. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility and dilative cardiomyopathy. While viral myocarditis is a possible cause, it is less likely in the absence of recent viral symptoms. Abacavir hypersensitivity, which can cause a hypersensitivity reaction in some patients, typically occurs within the first few months of treatment and is characterized by symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, malaise, and fever. Autoimmune disease and ischemic heart disease are also possible causes, but are less likely in a young patient with no history of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      53.9
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  • Question 39 - A 23-year-old female with a history of iron deficient anaemia and eczema visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female with a history of iron deficient anaemia and eczema visits the clinic with a skin rash. She is currently taking ferrous sulphate 200mg twice daily and no other medications. Upon examination, she presents with an itchy bullous rash consisting of papules and blisters on her elbows and knees. A skin biopsy reveals immunoglobulin A (IgA) deposition in a granular pattern within the upper dermis. What would be the most suitable treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dapsone and a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      The usual treatment for dermatitis herpetiformis involves the use of topical dapsone and adherence to a gluten-free diet. This is particularly relevant in cases where a young individual presents with iron deficiency and an atypical rash that does not resemble eczema or psoriasis. Coeliac disease may manifest with iron deficiency and no gastrointestinal symptoms, and the presence of dermatitis herpetiformis can aid in the diagnosis.

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.

      The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.

      In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 56 year old Caucasian man with HIV presents with gradually worsening cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old Caucasian man with HIV presents with gradually worsening cough and shortness of breath over the last two years. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and has been told his blood pressure is high previously but had never previously been to see his GP about it to get it treated. His GP is unaware of his HIV diagnosis and his main point of healthcare contact is with the Genito-urinary medicine services.

      However, for the last few days, he has been feeling faint and dizzy, especially when standing up. His breathlessness and cough are no worse than usual. He has no fever. On examination, his blood pressure is 91/76, his pulse is 94, and he is afebrile. His respiratory rate is 24, and his oxygen saturations are 92% on room air. He has a mild wheeze on auscultation of his chest. His heart sounds are faint, and his JVP is visible 3 cm above his sternal angle. There is no pitting edema. There is nothing else of note on examination.

      An ECG on admission is normal.

      Hb 14.0 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 6.2 * 109/l

      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 5.9 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      CRP 7 mg/l

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal insufficiency secondary to inhaled corticosteroid withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Timing of events is crucial in answering this challenging question. The metabolism of Fluticasone in Seretide involves P450, which is inhibited by Ritonavir, resulting in elevated systemic steroid levels and subsequent adrenal insufficiency. Addisonian symptoms, such as low sodium and high potassium, may occur upon discontinuation of Seretide. While disseminated TB is an unlikely diagnosis without fever or weight loss, it remains a significant consideration, particularly in the presence of HIV infection. The patient’s examination findings are consistent with COPD. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, characterized by bilateral adrenal hemorrhage in the setting of meningococcal septicemia, is another potential diagnosis.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 45-year-old office worker presented with a 9-month history of gradual weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old office worker presented with a 9-month history of gradual weakness in their left hand and a 4-month history of similar weakness in their right hand. They had no significant medical history. On examination, there were fasciculations in both biceps muscles with increased tone in both arms, weakness of intrinsic hand muscles bilaterally, and brisk upper limb reflexes. Coordination and sensory examinations were unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease (MND)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Motor Neurone Signs

      When a patient presents with motor neurone signs, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses. The most common form of motor neurone disease (MND) is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which presents with progressive upper and lower motor neurone signs. However, sensory nerves are unaffected. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is a disease of the peripheral nervous system, which affects both motor and sensory nerves. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a purely central nervous system disease, which presents with a relapsing remitting pattern and common sensory symptoms. Cervical myelopathy can present with a mixture of upper and lower motor neurone signs, but is usually accompanied by radicular pain and reflex loss. Finally, syringomyelia is characterized by a loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution over the trunk, due to disruption of the crossing spinothalamic fibres in the central spinal cord. Understanding these differential diagnoses is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 42 - A 36-year-old man presents to the hospital with dehydration due to diarrhoea. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the hospital with dehydration due to diarrhoea. He reports having loose brown stool four times a day and denies any previous gastrointestinal infections. On examination, his abdomen is mildly tender with no guarding or rebound tenderness, and his observations are within the normal range. His blood tests reveal elevated WBC count and positive stool test for Clostridium difficile toxin. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - You are summoned to the Emergency department to assess a 20-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the Emergency department to assess a 20-year-old man who is suspected to have overdosed on cocaine. He is experiencing chest pain and is highly agitated, with a blood pressure reading of 195/105 mmHg. What is the recommended first-line medication for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midazolam

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Cocaine-Induced Symptoms

      Cocaine use can lead to various sympathetic effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, seizures, and headaches. In case of agitation, seizures, and hypertension, benzodiazepines like midazolam are the initial treatment of choice. Beta blockers should be avoided as they can worsen hypertension by causing unopposed alpha activity. Calcium channel blockers like nifedipine can be used as a second line treatment for hypertension if benzodiazepines are not effective. Clonidine or dexmedetomidine, which are centrally acting alpha-2 agonists, can be used to treat anxiety and hypertension with a single agent. However, labetolol is not recommended as it does not abolish coronary artery spasm. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur after cocaine use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 44 - A 65 year old farmer is rushed to the Emergency Department after falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old farmer is rushed to the Emergency Department after falling into a trough of organophosphate sheep dip. Upon arrival, he is in critical condition with excessive vomiting and producing a large amount of respiratory secretions. His airway is in danger, but he is also restless and challenging to evaluate. His breathing rate is 20 breaths per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 87% on 4L/min oxygen. A wheeze can be heard from the end of the bed. His heart rate is 55 bpm, and his blood pressure is 92/44 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal. He is experiencing urinary and fecal incontinence and severe abdominal pain. He has widespread muscle fasciculation and overall weakness. His pupils are pinpoint.

      What is the most accurate description of the toxic effect of organophosphate compounds?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholinergic upregulation due to inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning occurs when these insecticides inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, leading to upregulation of cholinergic neurotransmission and causing both muscarinic and nicotinic symptoms. Treatment involves providing supplemental oxygen and administering intravenous atropine and oxime drugs. Decontamination and personal protective equipment are important to prevent exposure to healthcare providers.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old former teacher is seen in the Allergy Clinic. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old former teacher is seen in the Allergy Clinic. She has a history of peanut allergy, with two episodes of anaphylaxis over the past year, and she carries an adrenaline auto-injector with her at all times for this reason. Her primary care physician is asking about appropriate medications to manage her high blood pressure. She has no other significant medical history. During her visit, her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and her pulse is 80 bpm and regular. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2.
      Which antihypertensive medication should be avoided due to its potential to worsen anaphylactic reactions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing blood pressure in patients at risk of anaphylaxis, it’s important to consider the potential risks associated with certain medications. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, are thought to have the highest risk of worsening anaphylaxis episodes. This is due to their ability to prevent a compensatory rise in angiotensin II and reduce the breakdown of bradykinin.

      Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is a second-line intervention that can be used to manage blood pressure without potentiating anaphylaxis. Amlodipine is often the most appropriate initial intervention for blood pressure management in these patients.

      Beta blockers like atenolol should be avoided in asthmatic patients due to the risk of triggering an asthma attack, but they are not associated with potentiation of anaphylaxis. Angiotensin receptor blockers like losartan do not potentiate anaphylaxis, but they may still drive episodes of angio-oedema in their own right. Overall, careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of different blood pressure medications is crucial in managing patients at risk of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 46 - A 42-year-old man presents to the haematology day unit 55 days after receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the haematology day unit 55 days after receiving a bone marrow transplant from his sibling for acute myeloid leukaemia. He has been doing well until he noticed dark urine three days ago, followed by a fever and confusion. On examination, he has a high temperature, rapid pulse, and yellow sclerae. His blood tests show low haemoglobin and platelet counts, reactive white cells, and elevated levels of creatinine, bilirubin, and lactate dehydrogenase. His ciclosporin level is also high. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

      Explanation:

      The patient has evidence of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia, ruling out autoimmune haemolysis, autoimmune thrombocytopenia, or leukaemia relapse. The remaining possibilities are disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), with the patient exhibiting all five symptoms of TTP. TTP is caused by deficient ADAMTS 13 and can be acquired through post bone marrow transplant or ciclosporin use. Treatment involves plasma exchange and methylprednisolone, with anti-platelet agents considered when platelets are greater than 100. DIC is unlikely due to a normal coagulation screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old female presents with a significant upper gastrointestinal bleed. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a significant upper gastrointestinal bleed. She has been vomiting frank blood over the past 48 hours. She has a history of chronic back pain and admits to taking ibuprofen over the recommended daily dosage, especially over the past three weeks due to a flare up of her pain.

      Upon examination, she appears pale and her abdomen is soft with localised tenderness to the epigastric region. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse rate is 105 bpm.

      Hb 60 g/l
      Platelets 65 *109/l
      WBC 4.5 *109/l

      What is the optimal pre-endoscopy target haemoglobin range for blood transfusion in this patient's case to achieve the best overall outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target haemoglobin 70-80 g/l

      Explanation:

      Recent studies indicate that a conservative approach to blood transfusion during acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding leads to superior results when compared to a liberal approach. Notably, the restrictive transfusion strategy was found to enhance survival rates, decrease the likelihood of additional bleeding, lower the need for rescue therapy, and reduce the incidence of complications. Villanueva et al discovered that patients who received blood transfusions when their haemoglobin levels were below 70g/dL experienced better outcomes than those who were transfused when their levels were below 10g/dL.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 48 - A 49-year-old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic due to polydipsia...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man has been referred to the endocrinology clinic due to polydipsia and polyuria. He has a medical history of hypertension and bipolar disorder, but cannot recall which medication he is taking for the latter. His GP conducted blood tests and found elevated blood glucose, with an HbA1c level of 62 mmol/mol (normal range: 42-48). What is the probable medication responsible for this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The use of olanzapine for an extended period of time is a significant factor in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The exact cause of this is not yet known, but it is known that olanzapine, along with other antipsychotic medications, carries a high risk for this condition. Olanzapine affects the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor 3, which is essential in glucose-induced insulin resistance. Additionally, it leads to hyperglycemia by antagonizing dopamine 2 receptors (increased appetite), H1 histamine receptors (insulin resistance), and 5-HT2A serotonin receptors (insulin resistance).

      While aripiprazole can also cause hyperglycemia, it carries a lower risk compared to olanzapine. Long-term use of lithium can increase blood glucose levels, but it is more likely to cause diabetes insipidus than diabetes mellitus. Risperidone carries an intermediate risk of weight gain and diabetes development, with a higher risk associated with olanzapine.

      According to the BNF, sertraline should be used with caution in individuals with known diabetes due to its increased effect on insulin secretion, which can increase the risk of hypoglycemia.

      Drugs that can cause impaired glucose tolerance

      Impaired glucose tolerance can be caused by certain medications. These drugs include thiazides, furosemide (although less common), steroids, tacrolimus, ciclosporin, interferon-alpha, nicotinic acid, and antipsychotics. Beta-blockers can also cause a slight impairment of glucose tolerance and should be used with caution in diabetics as they can interfere with the metabolic and autonomic responses to hypoglycemia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients accordingly, especially those with pre-existing diabetes or at risk for developing diabetes. Adequate management and monitoring can help prevent further complications and ensure optimal patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 49 - A 57 year old gardener is brought to the Emergency Department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year old gardener is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife. He was bitten on the left foot by a snake while mowing the lawn. It is identified as a venomous copperhead snake. There is an obvious, red puncture site on the dorsum of the left foot with significant swelling of the entire foot to the level of the ankle. He is in significant discomfort. Examination reveals a normal cardiovascular examination with a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 135/88 mmHg and normal respiratory rate and oxygen saturations. Capillary glucose is 5.8 mmol. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with normal PR, QRS and QT intervals. Routine blood tests including liver function, electrolytes, creatine kinase, full blood count and arterial blood gases are normal.

      What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous access and rapidly infuse 0.9% sodium chloride with 1g intravenous paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Antivenin should only be used in cases of severe systemic envenomation where patients exhibit resistant hypotension, new ECG changes, a significant increase in white cell count, raised CK, metabolic acidosis, or swelling that affects more than half of the affected limb or crosses a joint boundary (such as beyond the wrist if bitten on the hand). The patient in the given scenario does not display any of these symptoms. Additionally, unless there are indications of an acute anaphylactoid reaction, there is no need for treatment with adrenaline and hydrocortisone, although antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief. Typically, symptomatic treatment is sufficient, with pain relief being the top priority. Intravenous analgesia may be faster-acting, and fluids may be necessary if there is significant swelling or profuse vomiting.

      The only poisonous snake in the UK is the common European adder or viper, vipera berus. Although adder bites are rare, children are often the victims. Fatalities are extremely uncommon, with only 14 recorded deaths due to adder envenomation since 1876. However, bites can be extremely painful and may cause local and systemic symptoms. These symptoms include severe local pain, swelling, erythema, paraesthesia, numbness, and blood blistering. In the hours following the bite, tracking erythema and significant swelling may occur, along with compartment syndrome and tissue necrosis. Systemic symptoms similar to anaphylaxis may also be present, including hypotension, collapse, airway swelling and compromise, diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever. These symptoms may be delayed. The venom also contains pro-coagulants, which can cause significant bruising at the site of skin puncture. Other symptoms are due to the composition of the venom, including cytokines, histamine, and various enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 50 - A 27-year-old female with a history of cerebral palsy is admitted for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female with a history of cerebral palsy is admitted for an elective intrathecal pump refill. Unfortunately, the procedure was unsuccessful and the pump could not be re-sited. Later that evening, the patient complains of severe pain in her lower limbs and feels generally unwell.

      Based on the following blood results, which drug is the patient experiencing withdrawal from?

      Hb 145 g/l
      Platelets 525 * 109/l
      WBC 14.1 * 109/l
      Neuts 8.4 * 109/l
      Creatine kinase 8445 Units/litre (normal range 24-170)
      CRP 44 mg/l
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 5.6 mmol/l
      Urea 12.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 156 µmol/l

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      The treatment of spasticity can involve the use of intrathecal baclofen, which is administered via a pump and works by activating GABA receptors. However, stopping this treatment can lead to a withdrawal syndrome that is similar to alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal. This syndrome can cause severe spasticity, as well as rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, and failure of multiple organs.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (3/8) 38%
Renal Medicine (1/2) 50%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/5) 40%
Respiratory Medicine (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/5) 20%
Infectious Diseases (1/5) 20%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (2/5) 40%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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