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  • Question 1 - Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment. What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using 4-chloro-m-cresol

      Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.7
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis. Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?

      Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
      Respiratory rate: ‰¥25/min
      Heart rate: ‰¥110/min
      Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.

      Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.

      A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
      Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
      Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
      Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
      Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
      If mechanical ventilation is indicated

      A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.

      An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      64.8
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  • Question 4 - Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is...

    Incorrect

    • Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:

      SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

      = (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5

      A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
      Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5

      Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80

      = (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5

      To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
      N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 5 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 8 - The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules

      Explanation:

      Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.

      It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.

      It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.

      The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6μm (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 μm is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 μm. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 μm and throughout the ranges 8-12 μm.

      IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.

      IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.

      The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.

      Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.

      The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 10 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter. His vital readings are: Temperature: 38.1°C. Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg), Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg). Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg, Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg, Cardiac output: 5 L/min, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%. Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance. Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation. His readings are listed below: Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%, Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg. Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9.5

      Explanation:

      Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

      CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

      Where,

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant
      Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
      SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
      PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

      Therefore,

      CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

      CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL. Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.

      Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.

      It is represented mathematically as:
      Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
      where,
      U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
      V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
      P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)

      Therefore, in this case:
      CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 14 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation. On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are: Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic. Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min, Pulse: 120 beats/min, Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg, SPO2: 95% on air. Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases. What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient's presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 16 - An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery. On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled. Her measurements are: End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240), End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140). Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.

      The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:

      SV = EDV – ESV, and

      EF = SV/EDV x 100

      The normal range for EF is >55-70%.

      For this patient,

      SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore

      EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 17 - Which of these statements is true about spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is true about spirometry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes

      Explanation:

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg

      A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:

      Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)

      The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.

      Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
      In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 19 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.

      The general meaning of BIS values are:

      >95: Patient is in an awake state.
      65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
      40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
      <40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state

      It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery.

      The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring.

      Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 21 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Incorrect

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform. How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 22 - A pulmonary function tests results are: (Measurement, Predicted result, Test result). Forced vital...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are: (Measurement, Predicted result, Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.85, 2.36 Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 3.34, 0.97. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 85.1, 39.9. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 7.33, 2.11. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 116, 44.4. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35%

      This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as V1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 23 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 24 - A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.

      Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.

      Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests: (Measurement - Predicted result...

    Incorrect

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests: (Measurement - Predicted result - Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.21, - 1.94. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 2.77, 1.82. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 81.9, 93.5. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 6.55, 3.62. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 103, 87.1 Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35%

      This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. V1/FVC ratio is 93.5%.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

      The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of 'restriction' from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 26 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair. What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.

      The parameters measured include:

      ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
      Oxygen consumption (VO2)
      Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
      Gas flows and volumes
      Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
      Respiratory rate
      Anaerobic threshold (AT)

      The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.

      Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities.

      The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship.

      During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment. As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs). Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute

      where,

      1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 29 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state. Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds

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Clinical Measurement (2/3) 67%
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