-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department following a bicycle accident. He reports experiencing pain and swelling in his right hand and has difficulty moving his thumb. Upon examination, there is reduced range of motion of the thumb and palpable tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox. However, his hand is neurovascularly intact. Can you identify the structures that form the lateral border of this anatomical landmark?
Your Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendon
Explanation:The tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus form the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox, not the muscles themselves. This patient’s pain and tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox suggest a likely scaphoid fracture, which is a common injury resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand. It is important to keep in mind the boundaries of the anatomical snuffbox, which include the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, brevis, and abductor pollicis muscles. The proximal border is the styloid process of the radius, the distal border is the apex of the snuffbox triangle, and the floor is made up of the trapezium and scaphoid bones.
The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol by a junior doctor and sent home. After a few months, he returns with persistent pain and discomfort in the hip. The doctors suspect avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?
Your Answer: Angiogenesis at the fracture site
Correct Answer: Apoptosis of osteoblasts
Explanation:Necrotic cell death does not involve apoptosis. Instead, the body typically attempts to repair the damage by promoting angiogenesis and the proliferation of fibroblasts. These cells may even differentiate into osteoblasts, which can then lay down new matrix.
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, resulting in bone destruction and joint dysfunction. This commonly affects the femur’s epiphysis, which is a long bone. The causes of AVN include long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma. Initially, AVN may not show any symptoms, but pain in the affected joint may develop over time. Plain x-rays may not show any abnormalities at first, but osteopenia and microfractures may be visible early on. The crescent sign may appear due to the collapse of the articular surface. MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. Joint replacement may be necessary for management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. The pain spreads to his buttocks and is most severe in the morning, but gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, it even wakes him up at night.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects young men and causes lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the mornings. It is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that leads to inflammation of the lower axial skeleton. Sacroiliitis, which is inflammation of the sacroiliac joints, is a common sign on x-ray. Unlike many other rheumatological conditions, ankylosing spondylitis is more prevalent in men than women.
Intervertebral disc herniation is not the correct answer. This condition typically causes back pain and dermatomal leg pain that does not improve throughout the day or with exercise. It is usually caused by an injury rather than developing gradually without a clear cause.
Reactive arthritis is also an incorrect answer. This is another type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that occurs after exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, such as Chlamydia, Salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni.
Rheumatoid arthritis is also not the correct answer. This is a chronic inflammatory condition that causes inflammation of the synovial tissue and is more common in women. It typically presents with symmetrical, polyarticular arthritis of the small joints.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.
Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 33-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of a red rash on her hands. She first noticed the rash a few weeks ago after moving into her new apartment with her partner. However, in the past few days, the rash has become extremely itchy and is keeping her up at night. Despite using her regular moisturizer cream, the rash has not improved. Upon examination, the doctor observes a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands that extends into the interdigital spaces, with multiple excoriation marks. The rash is not present anywhere else, and there are no other significant findings.
What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the underlying mechanism behind this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:The severe itching caused by scabies is a result of a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and their eggs, which occurs around 30 days after infestation. This type of reaction involves T-cells and antigen-presenting cells, leading to an inflammatory response. Scabies is typically spread through close skin-to-skin contact with an infected person. An allergic reaction to the patient’s regular moisturizer would be a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which causes acute itching. Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the epidermis would be a type III hypersensitivity reaction, while psoriasis is caused by hyperproliferation of epidermal keratinocytes and presents with red, scaly patches on extensor surfaces. Bacterial skin infections like cellulitis cause warm, swollen, and red skin with systemic symptoms like fever.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
As a medical student on placement, while practising orthopaedic examinations, you come across a patient whose knee observation reveals that the centre of gravity is medial to the knee joint, causing the knees to bow outwards. What is the appropriate term for this condition?
Your Answer: Genu varum
Explanation:The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 32-year-old male is requested to hold a pen between his thumb and index finger. He finds it difficult to accomplish this task.
What other activity is the patient likely to have difficulty with?Your Answer: Adduction of his fingers
Explanation:If a patient exhibits a positive Froment’s sign, it suggests that they may have ulnar nerve palsy. The ulnar nerve is responsible for controlling finger adduction and abduction. Meanwhile, the median nerve is responsible for thumb abduction and wrist pronation, while the radial nerve controls wrist extension.
Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.
Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.
Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?
Your Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:Most rotator cuff muscles insert into the greater tuberosity, except for subscapularis which inserts into the lesser tuberosity.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A man in his early 50s complains of experiencing numbness and pain in his right hand's thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Which nerve roots are most likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: C5-T1
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?
Your Answer: Deep ulnar
Explanation:PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.
Interossei: Muscles of the Hand
Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.
All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.
In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 65-year-old avid hiker complains of discomfort in her leg while ascending hills and using stairs. Which muscle is accountable for extending the hip?
Your Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The gluteus medius and minimus muscles are responsible for hip abduction, while the gluteus maximus muscle externally rotates and extends the hip. The gluteus maximus muscle originates from the sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of the ilium, and inserts onto the gluteal tuberosity. The other gluteal muscles attach to the greater trochanter to facilitate abduction.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)