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  • Question 1 - You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.

      Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Refer to a specialist for advice

      Correct Answer: Try ramipril

      Explanation:

      Managing Resistant Hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.

      If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      57.6
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman is in distress as she suspects her husband of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman is in distress as she suspects her husband of infidelity. She reports experiencing vaginal itching and a discharge resembling curd for the past week.

      What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole gel

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole pessary

      Explanation:

      The individual is suffering from thrush. Pregnancy prohibits the use of oral antifungal treatments, so a Clotrimazole pessary should be administered instead.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      76.4
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents with shortness of breath.
    An ECG shows atrial fibrillation (AF).
    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with shortness of breath.
      An ECG shows atrial fibrillation (AF).
      He takes digoxin, furosemide, and lisinopril.
      What further drug would improve this patient's outcome?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Abciximab

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Therapy for AF Patients with Heart Failure

      The risk of embolic events in patients with heart failure and AF is high, with the risk of stroke increasing up to five-fold in non-rheumatic AF. The most appropriate prophylactic therapy for these patients is with an anticoagulant, such as warfarin.

      According to studies, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with warfarin for one year, 30 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds. On the other hand, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with aspirin for one year, only 12.5 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds.

      It is important to note that NICE guidelines on Atrial fibrillation (CG180) recommend warfarin, not aspirin, as the preferred prophylactic therapy for AF patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

    You discuss starting treatment and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

      You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.

      His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.

      What blood test monitoring should next be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days

      Explanation:

      Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment

      Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.

      In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)

      Explanation:

      The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:

      Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)

      What test should be done before starting azithromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum vitamin B12 level, pruritus, neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, and splenomegaly.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV) is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by excessive production of red blood cells, leukocytes, and platelets. This condition arises when a single clone of stem cells gains a proliferative advantage over other stem cells. PRV is often discovered through routine blood tests and may present with nonspecific symptoms such as headache, weakness, and joint pain. However, about one-third of patients may present with thrombosis. Physical examination may reveal ruddy cyanosis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and hypertension. The haemoglobin level is typically elevated in PRV.

      Differential diagnosis includes von Willebrand’s disease, which presents with mucosal bleeding, and haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron accumulation in the liver and other organs. Secondary polycythaemia, on the other hand, is caused by an underlying condition and only affects red blood cells. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare disorder of the blood-coagulation system that causes extensive microscopic clots to form in small blood vessels throughout the body. It is a medical emergency and presents with symptoms such as purpura, fever, dyspnoea, confusion, and headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight (12 kg) and height (85 cm) are now below the 3rd centile for her age. She has failure to thrive. She is still predominantly breastfed. No problems were reported during the antenatal period, at delivery or at the postnatal stage.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions: Rickets, Blount’s Disease, Child Abuse, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Physiological Genu Varum

      Rickets, a condition characterized by bony abnormalities such as bowed legs and knock-knees, was once prevalent in the Western world but has since been largely eradicated through vitamin D fortification. However, it still affects some children, particularly those who are black or breastfed. Blood testing can reveal low levels of vitamin D and hypocalcaemia, while X-rays may show cupping, splaying, and fraying of the metaphysis. Blount’s disease, which causes bowed legs due to tibial growth plate disorders, can be difficult to distinguish from physiological genu varum in children under two years old. Child abuse allegations may arise when infants with rickets suffer bone fractures. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease, is the most common form of arthritis in children and adolescents. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these pediatric orthopedic conditions and to properly diagnose and treat them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no associated nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients

      Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with incidence increasing as they age. It is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. DIOS is usually diagnosed through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilatation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.

      Treatment for mild and moderate episodes of DIOS involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used in moderate episodes to loosen and soften the plugs. Severe cases may require gastrograffin or Klean-Prep, and surgical review should be obtained if there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction. In resistant cases, phosphate or gastrograffin enemas can be used, or colonscopy with installation of gastrograffin.

      In summary, DIOS is a common complication in cystic fibrosis patients that can be diagnosed through radiographs, ultrasound, and CT scans. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the episode, but hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives are often used for mild and moderate cases. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and surgical review.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman who has had type 1 diabetes since childhood is now...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who has had type 1 diabetes since childhood is now 20 weeks pregnant.

      She has had problems with her blood sugar control in the last few months and has had three hypoglycaemic episodes (hypos) in the late afternoon over the last month. Each time she had to have glucagon injections given either by her husband or paramedics.

      She wants to know if she can continue driving.

      What is the DVLA guidance regarding driving in patients on insulin who have hypoglycaemic attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can drive if up to three hypos requiring help from another person in the last 12 months

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Patient Recognition of Hypoglycaemia Warning Symptoms

      The following criteria must be met for a patient to recognise the warning symptoms of hypoglycaemia:

      – The patient must not have had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring the assistance of another person within the preceding 12 months.

      It is important for patients to be able to recognise the warning symptoms of hypoglycaemia, as this can help prevent severe episodes that require assistance from others. By meeting this criteria, patients can ensure that they are able to manage their blood sugar levels effectively and avoid potentially dangerous situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to his belief that his wife is being unfaithful. They recently celebrated their 27th wedding anniversary and have always been devoted to each other. He is also the sole caregiver for his bedridden wife. Given this background, you question the likelihood of his accusations being accurate.

      What is the medical term for delusional jealousy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Othello syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where the individual believes that their partner is being unfaithful. This can be a standalone delusion or a symptom of an underlying mental health condition such as schizophrenia or a personality disorder.

      Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, but even when no evidence is found, they remain convinced of their partner’s unfaithfulness. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.

      Understanding Othello’s Syndrome

      Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.

      If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe headache every month just before the onset of her period. According to NICE, what is recommended to prevent the development of these headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice a day) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He is not currently taking any medication. He has been symptom-free but now reports a recurrence of his diarrhea.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine foam enema

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the colon and rectum. In mild-to-moderate cases, the recommended initial treatment is local application of an aminosalicylate, such as mesalazine foam enema. Corticosteroid enema or suppositories are alternatives but are less effective.

      If there is no response to local treatment, oral mesalazine can be added. However, oral therapy alone with mesalazine is less effective than topical treatment for milder acute exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease (proctitis). More severe exacerbations require oral steroids.

      For adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis, oral mesalazine is the first line choice to induce remission. Topical mesalazine or oral beclomethasone dipropionate may also be considered.

      Managing Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis: Treatment Options and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A father is worried that his 10-month-old baby boy has a squint. His...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 10-month-old baby boy has a squint. His left eye appears crossed inwards. He tracks toys well using both eyes. With the left eye covered, he fixes and follows easily. However, he fusses when the right eye is covered and has more trouble following with his left eye. On covering the right eye, there is an outward shift of the left eye. When the eye is uncovered, the left eye shifts back inward.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Esotropia

      Explanation:

      The cover-uncover test is the definitive method for testing for strabismus, which is a condition where the eyes are not properly aligned. During the test, an object is held in front of the patient to fixate on, and one eye is covered while the other is observed. If the covered eye shifts outward, it is an esotropia, and if it shifts inward, it is an exotropia. If there is a deviation of the opposite eye, it is a tropia.

      In the case of infantile esotropia, treatment begins with addressing amblyopia, which is a condition where one eye has weaker vision than the other. The stronger eye is patched for several hours each day to develop vision in the weaker eye. Once the vision is approximately equal, surgical alignment is more likely to be successful.

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the superior oblique muscle, resulting in weakness of downward eye movement and vertical diplopia. It is most commonly caused by head trauma or a congenital defect.

      Heterophoria is a slight tendency for the eyes to deviate from their normal alignment, which is common in most people. Pseudoesotropia is a condition where one or both eyes appear to be out of line, but there is no true squint, and the eyes are actually straight. This can be caused by a broad and flat nose bridge or an epicanthic fold that covers the inner corner of the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that had been bothering him for three days. Upon examination, a chalazion was discovered. There was no swelling or redness around the eye. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warm compress and gentle massage

      Explanation:

      Management of Chalazion

      A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, can be effectively managed with conservative treatment. The first step is to apply warm compress to the affected eye and gently massage it. This should help settle the active chalazion. Surgical drainage should only be considered if there are remnants after the active/inflamed stage that are affecting the patient. However, it is important to note that surgical drainage should not be attempted while the chalazion is still inflamed, as this can worsen the condition. Referral to an ophthalmologist is not necessary unless the chalazion is not improving or causing more complicated problems to the eye.

      It is important to note that ocular lubricants and steroids do not play a role in the management of chalazion during the acute inflamed stage. Antibiotics are also not recommended as a first-line treatment. In an examination setting, it is likely that questions on this subject will follow the latest NICE CKS guidance on the management of meibomian cyst chalazion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 18 - Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics if they are 65 years old.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 4-year-old with otitis media associated with otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Use in Children with Otitis Media and Sore Throat: NICE Guidelines and Cochrane Review

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend immediate antibiotic prescribing for children with otorrhoea and acute otitis media, as well as for children under 2 years with bilateral otitis media, those who are systemically unwell, have signs of complications, or have pre-existing co-morbidities. For children with acute sore throat and three or more Centor criteria, antibiotics may be considered due to the likelihood of a group A β-haemolytic streptococcus infection. However, a Cochrane review found that antibiotics provide only a small benefit for acute otitis media in children, and the possible adverse reactions must be weighed against this benefit. A pragmatic approach is to provide a prescription for antibiotics but advise parents to wait and see if it is necessary to have it dispensed based on worsening or prolonged symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK...

    Incorrect

    • At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK schedule, specifically at 8 and 12 weeks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Routine Childhood Immunisation Schedule

      The routine childhood immunisation schedule is a crucial aspect of healthcare for young children. It protects them from a range of diseases that can cause serious harm or even death. The schedule includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and rotavirus.

      At 8 weeks, infants receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and oral rotavirus. At 12 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, and oral rotavirus. At 16 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, and meningococcal group B.

      It is important to note that the hepatitis B immunisation was added to the routine schedule in 2017, but not hepatitis A. Additionally, pneumococcal immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks, while meningococcal B immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks. Understanding the routine childhood immunisation schedule is crucial for healthcare professionals and parents alike to ensure the health and safety of young children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50

      This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.

      Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.

      Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.

      An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.

      In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators

      Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
      What is the most likely causative drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spice

      Explanation:

      Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe driver for four days following a period of vomiting. He is currently taking a total of 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours via a syringe driver, but his nausea is now well controlled and he wishes to go back on to oral medication.

      What total dose of oral morphine should you prescribe over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120 mg

      Explanation:

      Drug Calculation Learning Point

      When it comes to drug calculations, it’s important to be careful and avoid getting caught out. One common scenario is converting a patient from oral medication to a subcutaneous infusion as their disease progresses. However, it’s also important to be able to take patients off a syringe driver and back on to oral medication. In this case, the total daily dose of diamorphine via syringe driver is one-third of the total oral dose of morphine. It’s easy to get the calculation the wrong way around, so it’s crucial to be familiar with this learning point.

      For example, if a patient is having 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours, the total 24-hour oral dose of morphine would be 30 mg x 3 = 90 mg oral morphine. This is a common area of weakness in the AKT exam, and examiners have highlighted it as an area of poor performance. Therefore, it’s essential to practice this calculation repeatedly during revision time to ensure a thorough understanding of the concept.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of a malodorous...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge. Upon examination, it is determined that she has bacterial vaginosis. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can lead to various pregnancy-related issues, such as preterm labor. In the past, it was advised to avoid taking oral metronidazole during the first trimester. However, current guidelines suggest that it is safe to use throughout the entire pregnancy. For more information, please refer to the Clinical Knowledge Summary provided.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 26 - GPs are being asked more frequently to provide medical reports by their patients...

    Incorrect

    • GPs are being asked more frequently to provide medical reports by their patients or insurance companies. It is crucial to understand when patient consent is necessary before completing a report.

      For which of the following reports will patient consent be necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Letter of support for absence from court

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medical Reports

      Medical reports are often requested from doctors by various entities such as government bodies, employers, insurance companies, and patients themselves. However, the need for patient consent varies depending on the type of report being requested. Legal reports that are necessary for patient care, such as child protection reports and mental capacity assessments, do not require patient consent. Similarly, reports that serve the public good, such as notifications of infectious diseases and adverse drug reactions, do not require patient consent either.

      On the other hand, reports that provide information on illness as an entitlement or excuse, as well as reports that declare patients fit for sports or occupation, or provide information for actuarial assessments, all require patient consent. It is important for patients to understand the purpose of the report being requested and whether or not their consent is required. By doing so, patients can make informed decisions about their medical information and ensure that their privacy is protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old woman has reported experiencing occasional post-coital and intermenstrual bleeding for approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman has reported experiencing occasional post-coital and intermenstrual bleeding for approximately 2 months. She has no complaints of dyspareunia or pelvic discomfort. During a speculum examination, no abnormalities were detected. She consents to being tested for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea.

      Which test would be the most suitable to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A vulvovaginal swab

      Explanation:

      For women, the appropriate location to take swabs for chlamydia and gonorrhoea is the vulvo-vaginal area, specifically the introitus.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.

      During the physical examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the front part of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocoele

      Explanation:

      When examining scrotal lumps, it is crucial to differentiate between a hydrocoele and other types of testicular masses. This can be done by determining whether the lump is connected to the testis or separate from it, and whether it is solid or fluid-filled.

      A hydrocoele is a fluid-filled sac that forms around the testis within the tunica vaginalis. It is cystic in nature and cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. However, it can be identified by its ability to transilluminate. Although a hydrocoele is typically benign, it can sometimes be a symptom of a testicular tumor, which can be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.

      In contrast, testicular tumors are usually connected to the testis and have an irregular shape. They are not cystic and do not transilluminate, but they can also cause a secondary hydrocoele.

      Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts are separate from the testis and can be identified by their distinct location.

      Scrotal Swelling: Causes and Management

      Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.

      The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old male attends surgery with his wife to ask your advice.
    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male attends surgery with his wife to ask your advice.
      He has neurofibromatosis and they are thinking about starting a family. He tells you that his father had the same condition and he is worried about passing it on to their children. His wife has no significant family history of genetic problems and no personal history of any medical problems.
      What should you tell them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of their child inheriting the conditionis 50% regardless of the sex of the child

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis: An Inherited Condition

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that both males and females can be affected, and there is no carrier state. If an individual inherits the faulty gene, they will have the condition. If one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
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