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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Incorrect
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In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 110 g/l
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Haemoglobin decreases from 13.3 g/dL to 10.5 g/dL from the start of pregnancy i.e. First trimester till the 3rd trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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Regarding ovarian cancer, which factors are thought to lower the risk?
Your Answer: Taking statins
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a gynaecological cancer that commonly affects women over 40 years. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include: infertility, a family history of ovarian, breast or colorectal cancer. There are some protective factors, which include: high parity and breastfeeding, early age at menarche and late age at menopause, and combined oral contraceptives, and statins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Correct
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CTG showing early decelerations is :
Your Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression
Explanation:Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient complains of vaginal soreness and discharge. Examination reveals vulval irritation and a 'strawberry' cervix. A wet smear is sent for microscopy which confirms trichomoniasis. What percentage of trichomoniasis cases would you expect to see a strawberry cervix?
Your Answer: 10-20%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is caused by trichomonas. It is sexually transmitted. It is diagnosed on microscopy of vaginal discharge and cultured in Finn-Berg Whittington medium. It is characterised by valval itching, foul smelling discharge and appearance of strawberry cervix due to presence of punctate haemorrhages which occur in 2% of the cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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The external anal sphincter is innervated by which nerves?
Your Answer: Inferior rectal
Explanation:The external anal sphincter is innervated by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2-4) while the internal anal sphincter is innervated by autonomic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:
Your Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Local Examination
Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia
Explanation:A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Folic acid
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes. What is the likelihood of spontaneous labour starting within 24 hours?
Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 60%
Explanation:In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 0 to 41 6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 0 and 36 6 weeks. 60% of the women will go into labour with in 24 hours in PPROM. After 24 hours have past without any contraction and the gestation age is more than 34 week than prostaglandins can be used to augment labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks. On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%. Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range. Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?
Your Answer: IV fluid resuscitation with Ringer’s lactate
Correct Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
– Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
– Moderate to severe dehydration.
– Ketosis
– Electrolyte abnormalities.Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
– Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
– Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
– Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
– Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
– Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?
Your Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding
Explanation:it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.
For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.
All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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What type of drug is clavulanic acid?
Your Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor
Explanation:Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Initiation of antihypertensive treatment
Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein
Explanation:This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.
→ Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
→ It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
→ Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department. She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour. On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated. Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?
Your Answer: Caput and moulding of the fetal head.
Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.
Explanation:A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.
Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.
In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.
Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.
The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.
Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.
Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?
Your Answer: More than 50% will abort
Explanation:Threatened abortion:
– Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
– Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
– 50% survival
More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary?
Your Answer: Tip of the coccyx
Explanation:The bony pelvis is made up of a girdle with a central canal. The rim that surrounds the upper opening of the canal is called the pelvic inlet, while the lower rim is the called the pelvic outlet. The pelvic outlet is diamond-shaped and is bounded posteriorly by the tip of the sacrum, and anteriorly by the pubic symphysis, with its lateral boundaries being the ischial tuberosities and the sacrotuberous ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive. Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion. In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?
Your Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations. Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?
Your Answer: Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)
Explanation:Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.
Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy for irregular menstrual bleeding. Histology shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy
Explanation:There is an increase risk of developing carcinoma of the uterus, if the endometrium shows hyperplasia with atypia. The standard surgery is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy which can be performed abdominally or laparoscopically If the disease is grade 1-2 and less than 1B i.e. less than 50% invasion of the uterine body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Correct
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A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy test is negative. As part of your work-up, you order a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals a fluid filled, thin walled cyst measuring 1.8 x 1.3 x 1 cm. She doesn't complain of pain or tenderness. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign.
Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.However, meta-analyses have since shown that there is no difference between OCP use and placebo in terms of treatment outcomes in ovarian cysts and that these masses should be monitored expectantly for several menstrual cycles.
If a cystic mass does not resolve after this timeframe, it is unlikely to be a functional cyst, and further workup may be indicated.
Other methods of management maybe revisited if cyst increases in size or becomes complex upon follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 38 year old woman in early pregnancy is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. What percentage of women her age have miscarriages?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition. Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?
Your Answer: Emergency delivery by cesarean section
Correct Answer: Cardiotocography
Explanation:Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal hypotension, rehydration with intravenous fluid, cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer: 24-28 weeks of pregnancy if past history of GD
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Testing for GD should use the 2 hour 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to test for GD in women. Testing women who have had GD in a previous pregnancy: early self monitoring of blood glucose OR a 75 g 2 hour OGTT as soon as possible after booking (whether in the first or second trimester) and a further 75 g 2hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks if the results of the first OGTT are normal. Testing women with risk factors for GD: 75g 2 hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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Normally, pregnancy in 2nd trimester is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Elevated fasting plasma glucose
Explanation:Elevated fasting plasma glucose means gestational diabetes mellitus and is not considered to be in the spectrum of a normal pregnancy. In normal pregnancy however, maternal tissues become progressively insensitive to insulin. This is believed to be caused partly by hormones from the placenta and partly by other obesity and pregnancy related factors that are not fully understood. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) occurs in about 5% of pregnancies but figures vary considerably depending upon the criteria used and demographic characteristics of the population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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What percentage of children does delayed puberty occur in?
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development in girls beyond the age of 13, and the absence of testicular development in boys beyond the age of 14. The incidence of delayed puberty is 3%, with the condition being more common in boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?
Your Answer: Interphase
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?
Your Answer: Paraxial Mesoderm
Correct Answer: Endoderm
Explanation:The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/75. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?
Your Answer: Worsening hypertension
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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