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Question 1
Correct
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What type of drug is clavulanic acid?
Your Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor
Explanation:Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL). Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia. Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?
Your Answer: Laser ablation of the cervix
Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix
Explanation:When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.
In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department. On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?
Your Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.
Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.
A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.
Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption
Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.
The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.
When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.
CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.
D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What form is 99% of body calcium found in?
Your Answer: Calcium Gluconate
Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate
Explanation:Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed below have been linked to obesity in children. Select the syndrome with which the other clinical symptoms in this patient are most likely to be linked.
Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts. The name polycystic ovary syndrome describes the numerous small cysts (fluid-filled sacs) that form in the ovaries. However, some women with this disorder do not have cysts, while some women without the disorder do develop cysts.
The symptoms of PCOS may include:
– Missed periods, irregular periods, or very light periods
– Ovaries that are large or have many cysts
– Excess body hair, including the chest, stomach, and back (hirsutism)
– Weight gain, especially around the belly (abdomen)
– Acne or oily skin
– Male-pattern baldness or thinning hair
– Infertility
– Small pieces of excess skin on the neck or armpits (skin tags)
– Dark or thick skin patches on the back of the neck, in the armpits, and under the breastsThe so-called Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a fairly rare condition characterized by six cardinal signs, namely obesity, atypical retinitis pigmentosa, mental deficiency, genital dystrophy, polydactylism and familial occurrence.
Froehlich syndrome is characterized by increased or excessive eating that leads to obesity, small testes, and a delay in the onset of puberty. It is also common for children with Froehlich syndrome to experience the delay in physical growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder that occurs when your body makes too much of the hormone cortisol over a long period of time. Cortisol is sometimes called the “stress hormone” because it helps your body respond to stress. Cortisol also helps. maintain blood pressure. regulate blood glucose, also called blood sugar.
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by short stature, a round face, short neck, and shortened bones in the hands and feet. Intelligence usually ranges from low normal to mentally retarded. Headaches, weakness, tiring easily, lethargy, cataracts and blurred vision or hypersensitivity to light may also be present.
This patient’s condition can only be explained by PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: LH induces the granulosa cells to make aromatase
Correct Answer: FSH induces the granulosa cells to make aromatase
Explanation:The two main cell types of the ovaries:
1. The theca cells produce androgen in the form of androstenedione. The theca cells are not able to convert androgen to oestradiol themselves. The produced androgen is therefore taken up by granulosa cells.
2. The neighbouring granulosa cells then convert the androgen into oestradiol under the enzymatic action of aromatase FSH induces the granulosa cells to produce aromatase for this purpose -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?
Your Answer: 8%
Correct Answer: 18%
Explanation:This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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Pregnancy is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Increased peripheral resistance
Explanation:A variety of changes in the cardiovascular system occur during normal pregnancy, including increases in cardiac output, arterial compliance, extracellular fluid volume and decreases in blood pressure (BP) and total peripheral resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Question 11
Correct
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Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Suckling
Explanation:Serum prolactin levels are increased during suckling. Some other conditions in which serum prolactin is increased consist of: prolactin secreting brain tumours, anti psychotic drugs and hypothyroidism. It can also be increased in pregnancy, nipple stimulation and stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture.
Explanation:The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.
Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.
An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Question 14
Correct
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Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance
Your Answer: Autosomal Dominant
Explanation:PKD can follow either Autosomal dominant or recessive inheritance. Autosomal dominant is however the most common inheritance pattern and is seen in adult PKD. Infantile PKD is recessive
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?
Your Answer: >300 mg/mmol
Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week. Significant proteinuria = urinary protein: creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Correct
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A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Miscarriage rates:
20-24 – 9%
25-29 – 11%
30-34 – 15%
35-39 – 25%
40-44 – 51%
>45 – 75% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?
Your Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant
Explanation:With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.
Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?
Your Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly
Explanation:In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs. On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min. Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer: Decrease current exercise regimen
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer. What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Progesterone only
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.
Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.
The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.
Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: The right side is affected more then the left side
Correct Answer: The bladder tone increases
Explanation:Incontinence in women is typically related to dysfunction of the bladder or pelvic floor muscles, with such dysfunction often arising during pregnancy or childbirth, or at the time of menopause.
A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which HPV subtypes are chiefly associated with causing cancer?
Your Answer: 16 and 18
Explanation:HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV. As well as cervical cancer they are associated with cancers of the oropharynx and anogenital region.
There are over 100 genotypes of HPV including several other high risk HPV types. Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18
HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are low risk and cause anogenital warts.
Typically 70% of HPV infections are cleared within 1 year and 90% are cleared within 2 years
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid?
Your Answer: Activates Antithrombin III
Correct Answer: Inhibits Plasminogen Activation
Explanation:Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug which is one of the treatment options in menorrhagia i.e. heavy menstrual bleeding. It acts by binding to the receptor sites on plasminogen thus preventing plasmin from attaching to those receptors thus inhibiting plasminogen activation.
If pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate NICE advise treatments should be considered in the following order:
1. levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) provided at least 12 months use is anticipated
2. tranexamic acid or NSAIDs* or combined oral contraceptives (COCs) or cyclical oral progestogens
3. Consider progesterone only contraception e.g. injected long-acting progestogens*When heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) coexists with dysmenorrhoea NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid. Also note NSAIDs and tranexamic are appropriate to use if treatment needed pending investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Correct
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Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone?
Your Answer: FSH
Explanation:Sertoli cells contain receptors for FSH. In response to this Sertoli cells synthesize inhibin, androgen binding proteins and anti Mullerian hormone all which are connected to the reproduction cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Your Answer: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary
Explanation:Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis. For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist. Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin. Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.
– Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
– Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
– Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive. Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion. In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?
Your Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute
Explanation:During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?
Your Answer: Ca breast
Correct Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.
Ovulation Disorders
WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
Management:
Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
Reduce exercise if high levels
Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulationWHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
Management:
Weight reduction if BMI >30
Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
Metformin (1st line)
Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
Gonadotrophins (2nd line)WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
Management:
Consider IVF with donor eggs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Correct
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A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?
Your Answer: S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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